Heavens - Earth - Sea | The Authority of Christ

At Matt.28:18, Jesus said; 
"All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.".

"And God subjected everything under his feet and appointed him as head **over everything for the church**, which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all" (Eph.2:22-23). 
(1Cor. 3:16;  1Pet. 2:5;  1Cor. 12:17)
The heaven and earth over which Jesus has received authority, are symbolic and not physical. Heaven and earth, are not the sea, which is also symbolic. The symbolic sea is the realm of Satan (Isa.57:20).
Earth, comes from the Greek word "Gae", which more accurately means "land".. an owned plot of land... a homeland. 
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?t=kjv&strongs=g1093
God has such a "field under cultivation" where he makes his home, such as referred to in Rev.10:2;  1Cor. 3:9; Luke 8:15 and John 15:1; 14:23.

The heaven and earth are being sorted, into a heaven and earth that will pass away, or a new heavens and earth, that will remain forever... depending upon a choice of faithfulness or unfaithfulness (2Pet. 3:7,13). The heavens are where God is king... his throne. The earth is his footstool... willing subjects to God's authority (Acts 7:49).
Neither the heaven nor earth, are the sea belonging to Satan (Isa.27:1; 57:20), which will fully pass away (Rev.21:1; Ps.37:10).

The point of these scriptures, is that the dominion of God and Christ, are not the dominion of Satan. The physical world is not what the Bible is talking about, when it speaks in symbolic terms of the heavens, earth, and sea.
Jesus was given authority as a king when on earth, just as he stated at Matt.28:18. He rules until all the unfaithful disciples, who have made themselves enemies of Christ, are subdued under his feet..... (Luke 22:69; Ps.110:2;  1Cor. 15:25)
.....through the clouds of heaven/Zion (Heb.12:1; Matt.26:64; Jude 1:14; Ps.110:2; Rev.2:26-27; Jer.51:20; Hosea 6:5).
The physical creation has been made subject to Satan (Luke 4:6; John 19:11).

All the chosen ones, who choose to imitate Satan, are twice dead, having chosen the Destroyer again as their father, inheriting sin and second death. 
Those who imitate and follow the example and path of Jesus, are given a new birth, a spiritual one. They are born again of spirit and endure in faithfulness, to receive righteousness and life. 
Those two groups are the ones over which, Jesus has been given authority... not over Satan's fallen creation. Those rightly disposed for everlasting life, are being gathered into the storehouse of Jesus Christ. The rest are condemned by the "fire" of God's word of judgment (Jer.23:29; 5:14; Rev.11:3,5; 20:9;  2Pet. 3:7). 
The unfaithful are abandoned, to the sin and death they have chosen, and the dominion of the one who holds the power of death within his dominion (Heb.2:14).

Armageddon is the conclusion of this sorting harvest. Those under the authority of Christ who belong to heaven.....
(Eph.2:6; Heb.12:22-23; Luke 10:20; Rev.17:14; 19:14,8) 
.....battle at his side, against the agents of falsehood (1Tim. 4:1; Rev.16:13-16; 17:14; 12:10-11;  2Cor. 10:3-5)

So yes... all authority in "heaven" and on "earth" is given to Christ, to discipline, refine, teach, and judge as faithful, or not (Mark 13:33-37; Matt.25:14-15; 12:36; Rom.2:6-8; John 12:48). 

All Jesus slaves (the heavens and earth), have a day of accounting with him. The unfaithful "heavens" and "earth", will burn up with "fire". The faithful heavens will remain forever... and the "sea" will be no more. But to really understand what Matt.28:18 means, we must have spiritual discernment according to interpretation by scripture.
For more information about the symbolic meaning of earth:
https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2014/07/world-earth-home.html

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Symbolic " Earth "

A Part Two addition, and a Part Three, has been added at the end of this post.

What follows is a comment from a forum, criticizing this post: (world-earth-home), and my response to that comment.

COMMENT:
"However, according to Pearl, the terms 'world’ and 'entire inhabited earth’ refer
exclusively to ‘God’s people,’ making a joke of scripture which, for example,
says that there was 'an EARTH standing compactly out of water and in the midst
of water by the word of God, and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered
destruction when it was deluged with water; but by the same word the heavens and
the EARTH that are now are stored up for fire and are being reserved to the day of
judgment and of destruction of the ungodly men.’

Are we therefore to believe that ‘God’s people’ were ‘compactly standing out of
water’ in Noah’s day, and ‘suffered destruction when they were deluged with water’
in the global flood?'"

MY RESPONSE:
(I hope you will read each scripture. Therein lies the key to my response.)

You said;
"However, according to Pearl, the terms 'world’ and 'entire inhabited earth’ refer 
exclusively to ‘God’s people,’ making a joke of scripture which, for example, 
says that there was 'an EARTH standing compactly out of water and in the midst 
of water by the word of God, and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered 
destruction when it was deluged with water; but by the same word the heavens and 
the EARTH that are now are stored up for fire and are being reserved to the day of 
judgment and of destruction of the ungodly men.’

Are we therefore to believe that ‘God’s people’ were ‘compactly standing out of 
water’ in Noah’s day, and ‘suffered destruction when they were deluged with water’ 
in the global flood?'"

An examination of "world"/"cosmos", does not mean the planet or it's inhabitants, but rather, a system/age.
Jesus used this word as a reference to the Jewish system, under the old covenant. (John 15:18,25,19; 1:11)

"Entire inhabited earth" refers to a settlement upon land. According to the symbolic book of Revelation it is a realm distinct from the "sea" (Rev.13:1; Isa.57:20)... the "sea" being a "world" over which, "Leviathan" rules (Eze.32:2; Job 7:12; Isa.27:1; Ps.74:14; Rev.12:3; Gen.3:15; ) (1John 5:19).
(pearl-leviathan.blogspot.com)
Satan did not rule over God's now filled "earth" (Gen.1:28;  1Cor.15:45;  2Cor.5:17), but God and Christ are it's over-Kings and Lords (Matt.28:18; Eph.1:22; Ps.8:6; Eph.2:10; John 18:37; Rev.1:5; 5:9-10). Through "Zion" (Heb.12:22-23; Eph.2:6; Luke 10:19;  2Cor.5:20), Christ's rule subdues his enemies, while he rules in the midst of them (Ps.110:1-3; Rev.14:1; 19:11,14; 17:14;  2Cor.10:4-6).
God's first creation became enslaved to corruption (Rom.8:20-21;  1Cor.15:22) due to it's being given over to Satan (Heb.2:14; Rom.5:12,17-19), by Adam and Eve's choice to be guided by the Devil rather than God (Gen.3:6; Matt.12:33; Luke 6:43,45).
(two-trees)

We are told at Rom.15:4, that the accounts found in the Bible, have significance for us (2Tim.3:16).... especially those of us who exist in the time of the end (1Cor.10:11), which includes the Great Tribulation and Armageddon. In fact, accounts of the ancient prophets, will be of great significance, in their ability to impart the interpretation and meaning to God's prophetic mysteries, crystallized and condensed in the book of "Revelation" (Rev.10:7;  2Pet.3:2,6-7).
The original events recorded for us, occurred in the physical realm.... obviously.
But is that the significance for us? Will it occur again, physically. No (Gen.9:11).
Does that mean that such epic events have no meaning for us? No (Luke 17:26-30).
In speaking of the "new" creation; 1Cor.15:45-49 explains that it is a spiritual creation (Rom.8:9;  1Cor.6:17). It is of the spirit realm and of heavenly things, and the pattern of the first, physical creations; provide a pattern of what was to come (1Cor.15:46; Col.2:17; Heb.8:5).
This is also the case with the scripture you cite...
(I will break your comment into two quotes, and respond to each.)

"'an EARTH standing compactly out of water and in the midst 
of water by the word of God, and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered 
destruction when it was deluged with water; but by the same word the heavens and 
the EARTH that are now are stored up for fire and are being reserved to the day of 
judgment and of destruction of the ungodly men.’"

Did God's Nation... His "inhabited earth", "stand compactly out of water" in a spiritual sense?
First let us look more closely at what this is describing.
It is drawing a clear distinction between this earth, and it standing "compact" and firm... separate, from the "water".
We have already seen Isa.57:20 (Jude 1:13,12) as regards the identity of the "sea", from which the "earth" stands as distinctly separate
(John 15:19; 17:14;  2Cor.6:17).
We can observe the fulfillment of that accomplishment, at Rev.10:2,5-6.
What then, of the rest of  2Pet.3:6
"and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered 
destruction when it was deluged with water"?
This has also occurred...
Does God's "earth" "suffer destruction", due to being "completely deluged with water"? (Matt.5:13; Luke 21:24; Rev.11:2) ("water" dilutes "salt" - Num.18:19;  2Chron.13:5)
Yes. Please consider Rev.12:15-16,12; Dan.12:7,11; 8:11; 9:27; Isa.5:4-5; 6:11; Rev.13:7,10; Luke 21:24,35-36)
(earth-swallows-satans-river)
Do you see that the "earth", "swallows a river which Satan has disgorged from his mouth" (John 8:44)?
Do you believe that "river" and that "EARTH" (which "swallows"), to be literal???
  Please compare Gen.7:24 to Rev.9:5 [A Jewish month ("5 months" -Rev.9:5), consists of 30 days each (5 months" = 5X30=150 days -Gen.7:24] (Dan.9:26; 11:10,40; Ps.88:17).
[Means of survival: Luke 6:48; Col.2:6-8]
Why then, is the present "earth" ( = "ungodly men" 2Pet.3:7) (Hosea 13:6; Jer.5:7;  1Cor.6:15; Hosea 4:6; Rev.2:23,20-22; 17:2-3), said to be "stored up for fire" (Rev.20:10,15), if it is compared to a flood of waters?
God's Word can be both... "waters" and "fire", depending upon the context of the parable (John 4:10; Rev.22:1) (Jer.23:29; 5:14; Rev.11:5; 20:9).
Jesus compared the flood of Noah's day and the flood at the time of the end, because they are comparable, when the fulfillment is considered as symbolic.

It is helpful to consider the context of your verses (2Pet.3:3-4) and that the indication it gives, that the "end" being spoken about in the context, goes unrecognized.
That is because it is not indicated by physical signs, but by spiritual ones (1Cor.2:14,12-13,11; Luke 10:21; Matt.13:11-16) (Matt.24:3 LINK). Such is the spiritual fulfillment of prophecy...
    (Rev.1:1 Greek: "presented in signs"/parables) (Mark 4:34; Rev.11:3; Rev.5:7; John 15:15),
...according to the physical patterns recorded for us in the scriptures (Rev.10:7; Dan.12:4,8-10). Obviously, that includes your cited reference to the ancient flood (Luke 17:26).

"Are we therefore to believe that ‘God’s people’ were ‘compactly standing out of 
water’ in Noah’s day, and ‘suffered destruction when they were deluged with water’ 
in the global flood?"
No. Not literally in Noah's day.
But within the prophetic significance of that pattern for the "new" creation; the fulfillment about the spiritual "EARTH", is as absolute as the Word of God, as it's meaning is relayed to us, by Christ (Luke 17:26).

PART TWO

COMMENT IN RESPONSE TO MY REPLY:
So according to your interpretation of ‘all the inhabited earth’ [Gr. oikoumene] in
Matthew 24:14, Jesus meant to say that, ‘This good news of the kingdom will be
preached among ‘all of God’s people,’ and then the end will come.’ - REALLY???
Since you think that ‘all the inhabited earth’ refers to the anointed, who, then, is doing
the preaching of the good news to them, the pagans of this godless world, or what?

IN RESPONSE
Scriptures provided by another anointed teacher:
(Ezek.3:4,18; Jer.1:18; 25:29-34; Micah 4:11,13; 3:8; Matt.10:23; Matt.22:14; Isa.48:20,21; 49:5; Jer.31:7; Rev.5:9,10; Matt.10:40,41,42;  1Cor.6:2; John 20:23)

MY RESPONSE:
All the "earth" may be God's people at present, but that does not mean that all God's present people, are of "earth".
Who preaches to the "earth"? (Matt.10:23; Rev.1:11)
The armies of heaven, are not the unsealed of the "earth"
(who "swallowed" Satan's river of lies -Rev.12:16).

The "two witnesses" who declare Christ's message to the as yet, unsealed (Rev.7:3)
(Rev.11:3,4,5; Jer.5:14; Matt.10:20; Zech.4:11-12,13-14,10,9;  1Cor.3:16; Rev.3:12; Prov.9:1; Rev.8:6),
are no longer of the "earth", but are of heaven (1Cor.15:48; Rom.8:9;  1Cor.15:50; Phil.3:20; Eph.2:6; Heb.12:22,23; Rev.19:11,14; 17:14).
Please read the scriptures.
I have been commanded to always reply, by means of them (John 16:13; 7:16-18; Rom.3:4; John 5:30).
The marriage feast consists of "the true words of God" (Rev.19:9; Isa.55:8-9), not of men (John 5:43-44; 1:14; 12:49).

(the-good-news-for-who?)
-----------------
PART THREE:
My response continues...

If general mankind has not yet been judged, why then, are they already paying God's sentence for sin?
 (Rom.5:12; John 3:18; Heb.3:19; John 12:31)

Do you have a scripture to indicate that "all the nations" [(literally, "from all nations") -Rev.5:9,10; 7:9,15;  2Chron.23:6]...
    the "sheep and goats"...(Matt.25:32,34; Gal.3:29; Luke 22:29; 12:43,44; Rev.3:21),
...are "the 7+ billion inhabitants of the earth into those "who will enter everlasting life"?
NOTE: The scripture does not read "enter everlasting life". It reads, "inherit the kingdom" [Matt.25:34; 7:21; Luke 12:47,46 (Hosea 6:5; Jer.23:29)].

Addressing your second comment;
Your assertion that anointed themselves are not the ones doing wrong to their own brothers, that is quite a restricting notion
(1John 3:16,17; Matt.25:42,43;  1John 3:16; Col.1:2; James 2:1) (Luke 12:45; Matt.10:21; Rev.18:5; Hosea 9:7; Rev.17:6; 18:24; Matt.23:35,37).

Matt.25:45 speaks of "the least" of Christ's brothers"... not of those who have made themselves "the greatest" (Mark 10:42-44;  1Pet.5:3),
such as the GB "steward" of today (Luke 12:45), who beat their fellows... casting them out to be despised, and their needs, ...utterly ignored! (Matt.25:42-43)
Your premature presumption, limits your capacity to expand your understanding of prophecy.
  If searching for the divine intent of scriptural meaning, it is best to study scripture with an open mind, allowing the Bible to define itself;
rather than starting out with a premise, and filtering scripture through it.

Are you capable yourself, of "reconsidering your take on the meaning of terms like ‘all the earth’ and the ‘world.’ "?
   If the "sea" are the wicked (Isa.57:20; Rev.21:1; 13:1), then who do you say, are the "earth"/"land"?
(2Pet.3:13,10,7; Jude 1:15,12)
[I am assuming that you deduce and agree, that the sea/waters/"deep", is not the "inhabited/settled/occupied, land"
(John 14:23; Isa.26:15; 48:19; 49:19; 62:4) (Luke 8:15; Heb.6:7-9;  2Pet.3:7]

I don't recall seeing your answer yet, to what the "earth" is, that swallows Satan's river;
   (Rev.12:12,15,16; Isa.9:16; Jer.23:15; 9:15; Rev.8:10-11; 13:7,8; Hosea 4:6)
---------------(earth-swallows-satan's-river)
presuming that the "earth"
   over which, God is Lord (Acts 17:24),
is not the "sea" (Isa.57:20; Jer.5:22,23; James 1:6)
    over which, "Leviathan" is king (Isa.27:1)
(https://pearl-leviathan.blogspot.com/)

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"World" / "Earth" / "HOME"

UPDATED, CLARIFIED

A comment which was left:
in response to: http://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2014/06/the-good-news-part-one.html

"Pearl,

You said"Both words used to translate this term (world, earth) are the same word in the Greek words originally written. Yet translations give two different translations of this same word (world, earth). In actuality, the original word simply means, "occupied home/filled homeland".

Please show one interlinear that shows the same word for both "earth" and "nations".

http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=Mat&c=24&t=NASB#s=t_conc_953014 

This link shows the 2 words for "earth" and "nations" are NOT the same word. Other interlinears confirm this.

The strongs concordance also shows that there are 2 separate words with different meanings for the words "earth" and "nations"."

My Reply:

 You are thinking I am speaking of the two words at Matt.24:14 for "world" and "nations" as being the same. I am not. I was speaking of the two words for "world" and "earth", at Rev.3:10. 
However, this is the same Greek word at Matt.24:14, translated "world" (or, "inhabited earth").
I will clarify all that in this post, as well as how the other Greek word "ethnos" (translated "nations"), is related to both verses.

I'll insert the broken link (to the Greek interlinear for Rev.3:10) again, down below, so you can check Rev.3:10, which as you will see, is translated:

"Because thou hast kept the

word of my patience, I also

will keep thee from the hour of

temptation, which shall come

upon all the world, to try them

that dwell upon the earth"

As you can see, there seem to be two different words there...

one for "world" and a different one for "earth".

Yet if you go to the Greek,

you will see that in both places, it is the Greek words "oikoumenEs" and "katoikountas"

If you notice the same root word is within both words,

you will see that both words contain the word that means "Home".

The first word means occupation of the home ("oikoumenEs"),

the second means those who occupy the home ("katoikountas").

Neither word is defined as the planet we live on but rather, it simply means the domicile that we uniquely abide within.

These two words appear different, but they have the same root. They do not have contrasting meanings, which would seem to be the case when comparing the translations "world" and "earth". 

The way to understand this, is to think about how our own language (assuming English) works.

We also have words that are basically the same, but have different spelling to suit the grammar.

For example,

We can say, "He is throwing me the ball."

We can also say, "He threw me the ball."

The only letters those two words have in common, is "thr".

If you did not speak English, you may think (by looking at the words) that these are two different words with different meanings. They certainly look different, don't they?

While their meaning is slightly different, we are talking about the same thing,

and the word is only spelled different, in order to fit the grammar of the sentence.

If we go back to the scripture,

neither "oikoumenEs" nor "katoikountas" mean "world" or the planet "earth",

as they have been translated.

If you go to the Greek, you will see that where they are translated in the interlinear,

they both refer to "HOME"....

just as "threw", and "throwing",

both refer to the ball moving through the air because of someone's arm propelling it.

In case the link below does not work again
(it always works for a time, and is then disabled),

here is the interlinear of 

the first word:

oikoumenEs

G3625

n_ Gen Sg f

beING-HOMED

Translated at Rev.3:10, as:

inhabited-earth  

(It is assumed here, by the translators, that the "home" being spoken of is the planet.) 

More accurately, it simply means a habitation, a dwelling.

and the second:

katoikountas

G2730

vp Pres Act Acc Pl m

ones-DOWN-HOMING

Translated at Rev.3:10, as:

ones-dwelling 

[Clearly does not mean the planet "EARTH" as it has been translated. Again it is assumed by the translators, that the dwelling being referred to here is the whole planet earth. Only the anointed understand where "home" is *from God's viewpoint (John 14:23; Ps.132:13,14,15,16). God inspired the scriptures, not the translators. God's perspective should give these words their interpretation.]

As you can see above ...the larger words are the actual direct and literal translation from Greek.

The two meanings were:

beING-HOMED

and

ones-DOWN-HOMING

Yet when we finally get it after the publishers take their liberties,

we wind up with:

"Because thou hast kept the

word of my patience, I also

will keep thee from the hour of

temptation, which shall come

upon all the world, to try them

that dwell upon the earth." (Rev.3:10)

This is not accurate, because neither word carries the original root word of both...

which is "HOME"....and those who occupy that particular home.

Neither one of the original words have the Greek meaning for either.... "world"  or  "earth".

The original Hebrew word for earth, is "he-rets" (not "oikou"), and simply means "ground"/"land"/"soil". Think about how Jesus used the symbolism of soil in parable (Luke 8:15). In Luke, chapter 8, the various forms of ground/soil, stands for differing hearts. A heart either accepts, keeps, and cultivates the planting of the seeds of truth within it (Luke 8:11; James 1:21;  1Cor. 3:8,9), or not. Those who cultivate the truth within them, become "sons of the kingdom" (Matt.13:8,23,37,38), because those who cultivate the word in their heart (wheat seed), grow up into mature wheat, and are known by their works and fruits, resulting from a cultivation of that seed. 
That fine soil, now becomes distinct from the other soils/hearts/land/earth, as belonging to God (Luke 8:5-8; Job 4:19; Ec.3:20; 12:7;  1Cor. 3:9; Luke 20:9,13,15-16) and as containing God's spirit. Those within whom God's spirit dwells..., 

(Rom.8:9,11; John 14:17; Eph.2:22;  2Tim.1:14)

...are the home of His spirit (again, John 14:23).

God's home within the heart is the only sort of heart/soil that has accepted and cultivated the truths of God. What then, of it's designation? Is it still merely the dust of the earth as the rest? (Gen.3:19; Rom.5:12,19; John 5:24; Luke 8:15) Does it's identity come to acquire a designation that reflects it's acceptance of Truth and Spirit within it?

When the truth of God's Word finds a home in a righteous, faithful heart...

 (Luke 8:15; Matt.13:38; Mark 4:20; James 1:21) 

-- (Wheat Seed - The Word, or the Sons?); 

...that person becomes an "occupied home/dwelling" for God's spirit and truth (John 4:23;  2Cor. 1:21-22; 5:5; Eph.1:14;  1Thess. 4:8), resulting in eternal life for that person (1Pet. 1:23; James 1:18; John 1:13; 6:63;  1John 3:9; Rom.8:9-11;  2Cor. 5:1-3).

God's spirit makes it's home within that heart of truth (John 14:23,2;  2Tim. 1:14;  1Cor. 3:16) (Isa.66:1-2 LINK). That is the "occupied home" (Greek: "oikou") which the scriptures containing "oikou"/"occupied home", are referring to (John 14:10,20; Col.2:9; John 17:7,21-23,26; Eze.36:27; Rom.8:9; Heb.10:16;  2Cor. 1:22; 3:17; 4:6; John 8:32). 

These facts are lost to the mis-translation of "oikou", when mistakenly rendered as the general "world", or "earth". This fact must be kept in mind, when interpreting the symbolic book of Revelation and it's reference to "earth" ("oikou").

There is presently a prevalent misconception, that the scroll of Revelation applies to the entire world/system/age, at large (Greek "cosmos"), the total occupants of the planet "earth"/Hebrew: "he-rets")... rather than to God's own people ("oikou"). Any beliefs that stem from this foundational error are also error. These faulty definitions and translations misconstrue Revelation's message, and prevent accurate understanding of every occurrence of this "home" throughout the entire scroll.

This dire ignorance is largely due to this mis-translation and mis-interpretation of the original Greek word, "oikou" (literally, "occupied home") into "earth" or "world", when those are not the Greek word that is actually and originally written within the scripture.

Inserting "Nations" (ethnos) as those who "occupy the home" (kat oikou ntas),

is also misleading. It assumes that the first translation is correct...

that we are talking about all that occupy the "world".

- But we are not talking about all that occupy the world!

The Greek actually said, all that the HOMEland consists of.
These can be from all nations (Rev.5:9,10).

The translators have assumed, 

that the "home" the Bible is referring to,

must be the world/earth. 

But this is not true (Micah 3:8-9,10-11,12; 1:2).

God does not consider Satan's "world" as His "home" (1John 5:19),

nor does his spirit occupy the dirt/ground/land, of the literal planet "earth".
He occupies the "soil" of hearts (Gal.4:6; Rom.5:5; 8:9;  1Cor. 3:16; Luke 8:11,15) where His Word of truth can take root (Col.2:7; Eph.3:17), grow (1Cor.3:6-7,8), and bear fruit (Gal.5:22; Luke 6:43,45; Matt.7:20).

God considers His Temple of Chosen Priests, his dwelling place/land/home.

(See 1Cor. 3:16 and John 14:23) (see Greek of Rom.8:9)
just as He referred to His people in the past, as being those who occupy the His land/His dwelling/His new "earth" (Eze.36:26)

(2Pet. 3:13; Eph.4:23; James 1:21). 

The translators consistently do the same thing with the Hebrew (Jer.25:30)! Although translated as "earth", the subject of these verses are clearly limited to God's people, which is proven historically. 

The events described in the context only took place among God's people of covenant, not in the world at large at that time. 

Despite that fact, such verses are mistranslated and consequentially, misinterpreted and misapplied as referring to the world or entire earth, which is a misrepresentation of what the original languages actually state.

Here again is the link where all this came from:
http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/rev3.pdf
The verse to examine there, is Rev.3:10.

If you go to the link you gave me (for Matt.24:14) and check,

the same word "oikoumenē

is used for "world". (Some say "inhabited earth")

Interestingly, your reference translates it as "world",

yet in Rev.3:10, that same word is translated as "earth", 

and "katoikountas" was the word at Rev.3:10 that was translated as "world".

Can you see how those two words are interchangeable, even among translators? Yet unfortunately, both words that they choose to translate into, prevent an accurate understanding of scripture.

This is because  (like our example of throwing and threw), they basically have the same meaning,

because they are from the same root word OIKOU....which again, does not mean world or earth,

but means HOME. The Greek words for "world" and "earth" simply are not there, but are assumed by translators, who do not recognize the existence of God's actual spiritual "home". How can they translate that which they cannot perceive?

It is good to read the Greek of Matt.16:18. 

It reads;
"And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build (Greek: oikodomhsw) my church, and the gates of Hades will not overcome it."
I have highlighted the word "build", due to it's actual Greek meaning...
oikodomhsw
oikodomEsO
G3618
vi Fut Act 1 Sg
I-SHALL-BE-HOME-BUILDING

I-shall-be-building
This word speaks of building one's own home.
(John 14:23; 2:21;  1Cor. 12:27; 3:9,10,16; 6:19; Eph.2:10,21,22; Isa.60:21; 64:8; Rom.8:9). That "home" that Jesus builds as his place to occupy, is God's Temple / priesthood (1Pet. 2:5,9,10; Heb.11:10).

(John 2:19;  2Sam.7:12,13,16; Luke 1:32; Rev.22:16;  1Chron.17:14,1,16)(Eph.2:20; Rev.21:14; Luke 6:13; Zech.4:9)

Jesus is the one responsible for enlisting and assembling the living stones which comprise God's temple dwelling and home (1Pet.2:5,9-10;  2Cor.6:16; Rev.21:3).

Regarding the word "Ethnos", which is found at Matt.24:14, and is liberally translated "Nations",

if you follow the link (at your own reference link) for this word's definition, 

http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1484&t=NASB

it simply means,

"*a multitude (whether of men or of beasts) associated or living together", which in my mind, can also refer to those who together,  "comprise the home" of God 

(Ps.133:1; Acts 4:32; Eph.4:3,16; John 17:21,22,23).

  Bible writers themselves have used this word "Ethnos" in a variety of ways,

and obviously, translators have also.

However we choose to apply and interpret this word,

should be in harmony with God's perspective, the rest of prophecy, 

and the truth of the rest of scriptures, ...not according to limited assumption.

Please let me know if I am making this clear, and if you see a wider view now.
At least I hope it helps you see, that the translators have taken liberties based upon assumption,
according to the only options they are capable of seeing.
They don't realize that God's home has nothing to do with the world or planet earth,
and that those who occupy the home being referred to, do not necessarily have to be... all the "nations" of the world. 

(Rev.5:9,10; John 17:16)

Regarding Matt.24:14; If we go back to the grass roots Greek of the translation of "world" and "nations", we see that both these translated words, are assumptions.
The Greek only and simply says, that the preaching will be done in the "home",
and that all those who are *a group occupying together the same home (definition of "ethnos"...translated "nations"), will be the target of that message. 

Jesus made clear by his direct statement, who his brothers would be preaching to when he arrived (Matt.10:23). That literally reads "the circuit of Israel". 

That "circuit" was a first century mail route, and is exactly depicted by the seven congregations listed in Revelation. This ancient mail route went to those cities in that order. It was the "circuit of Israel". 
We know that this is symbolic and refers to the "Israel of God" (Rom.9:6; Gal.6:16; 3:29). 

God's last warning, is to this same group 

(1Pet. 2:9-10; Rev.18:4;  1Cor. 6:15; Rev.17:2; 2:22)
People of all nations, are included (Rev.5:9,10).

In speaking of Zion, God said,
“All the descendants of those who oppressed you
will come bending low before you,
and all those who despised you
will bow down at your feet.
They’ll call you ‘The City of the Lord,’
‘Zion of the Holy One of Israel.’”
“He has given you the glory of Lebanon,
and it will come to you,
the cypress, and the plane tree, and the pine,
to adorn the place of MY SANCTUARY;
and I will make THE PLACE OF MY FEET, glorious." (Isa.60:14,13; Dan.8:11) (Matt.5:35)
Yes, God's resting place for His feet, is the "earth"/home (Acts 7:49),... His "sanctuary" of His Temple. 
We know that Temple cannot be made by human hands 
(Mark 14:58; Matt.16:18; Eph.2:20-22; Zech.4:9;  1Chron. 22:10; Ps.2:6-8; Heb.1:5;  1Pet. 2:5). (Eph.2:10; Isa.29:23; 43:7,10,21;  1Pet. 2:9)
This link includes more scriptures that clarify what the "earth" is, to which God's Word refers.
(http://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2012/12/question-can-you-explained-about-harlot.html)

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" Antipas "

At Rev.2:13 it reads;
"I know where you live (Greek: "katoikeis")—where Satan’s throne is. Yet you are holding on to my name and did not deny your faith in me, even in the days of Antipas, my faithful witness who was put to death among you, where Satan lives.("katoikei")"

Firstly, please take note that I have provided the Greek word (kat-oikei) for the place where one "live/lives", a dwelling. 
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?t=kjv&strongs=g2730

That word is made by combining two Greek words..."kata", which means "to settle down" (verb) upon in place and time... 
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?strongs=G2596&t=KJV

...and "oikeo", which means a dwelling, or residence (noun). It is the place dwelt within.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G3611

As you see from Rev.2:13, "kat-oikei" is used to refer to a residence... firstly, of the person Jesus is speaking to... and secondly, of the place where Satan resides/dwells.

"OikoumenEs" is a related word, which refers to an owned land, upon which one occupies or settles. It is not the verb "living", but is the noun... the place occupied.

The reason why this is relevant, is because this is the word used ("Oikumen") in the Bible to describe places lived in, such as Rev.6:10; 13:8; Rev.12:9 NIV and many other places in Revelation's prophecies. It is commonly translated as "earth" / "inhabited earth" / "world". 
---That is misleading, because these verses are not referring to the planet and all who live on it, nor the structure of society. They are pointing to a particular dwelling... whether it is owned and occupied by a Christian, Satan, (Eph.2:2; 4:18; Acts 5:3), or by God 

(John 14:23;  2Cor.6:16; Eph.2:22; Rev.21:2-3; Rom.8:9; 5:5;  2Cor.1:22). 

When interpreted for it's spiritual meaning, oikumene/"inhabited earth" simply means a settled and occupied land/dwelling 

(Heb.3:6;  1Cor.3:9; Eph.2:20) of spirit. 

[see: world-earth-home.html ]

Just as subjection to God's spirit is from within a person; God's spirit exerts influence in the heart (Jer.31:33; Luke 8:11,15; Luke 17:20-21 NKJV; Rev.22:3); so too, Satan's spirit dwells within and exerts influence within the heart (James 1:14-15; Eph.2:2). The heart is the dwelling of spirit... the home and habitation of those who influence us.

["World" should only be used to translate the Greek word "cosmos". Yet at Rev.12:9, the original word was "oikumen" (inhabited, occupied land/homestead). So we see another, sloppy inconsistency, which creates a challenge for those seeking accurate Bible understanding.
(Note: "Cosmos" also, does not mean the whole planet including it's inhabitants. It simply means, an order/arrangement, and in the teaching of Jesus, is usually referring to a religious system.)
(https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/search?q=world+who+hated+Jesus%3F)]

Remember that Revelation is symbolic, so we need to decipher, which spiritual dwelling is being referred to. We should not assume however, that this is referring to the entire physical planet, occupied by the entire world's population, as it is commonly translated and understood. That is not the theme or entities that Revelation is about (Rev.1:1,3,11,20; 2:1; 22:19).

As you may now realize, having an accurate understanding of the dwelling/habitation being referred to in Revelation's prophecies, would be crucial to correctly perceiving the message of Revelation, and who it is that is being depicted in it's unfolding, prophetic scenarios.
For more information about the "earth" of Revelation, please consult this search result: 
(https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/search?q=symbolic+earth)

Now back to Rev.2:13.

We are told at the end of the verse, that Satan lives (occupies/dwells/inhabits) in the same place as the disciple that Jesus is addressing. That same place is also referred to as "the synagogue of Satan".

Satan's spirit is in the midst of his synagogue> (meaning=place of assembly/congregation), just as Jesus is in the midst of his own congregations (Rev.1:20,13; Matt.28:20; John 17:21-23). Just as Jesus is controlling head, king, and leader over the hearts of his disciples amid that spiritual congregation (Col.1:18; Rev.1:5; 3:21) so too is Satan's synagogue is the place of Satan's throne (Rev.2:13; 13:2).

I felt it important to bring up this verse, because of another common misconception, based upon another less-than-accurate but common mis-translation. That translation gives the impression, that Antipas, IS, the "Faithful Witness".
All of Revelation should be interpreted by means of scripture (Gen.40:8) (John 16:13; 8:47; 7:16-17). Each symbolic reference in Revelation, can and must be deciphered, using God's Word (John 17:17;  2Tim.3:16-17;  2Pet.1:19; Rom.15:4).

So then, do the scriptures have another reference to this "Antipas", so that we can understand who Jesus is referring to?
Normally, we should pull up every occurrence of a Bible term, so that we develop a consistent interpretation that does not conflict with any Bible verse. But in the case of "Antipas", there is only one person having that name. He is referred to, at Luke 13:31; Matt.14:3,5; Mark 6:16-19. The Herod (king of Israel) that became the executioner of John the Baptist, was Herod Antipas.
https://www.britannica.com/biography/Herod-Antipas

Jesus chose to use the phrase; "In the days of Antipas".
How do these words help to identify who it is that Jesus is pointing to? 
Please consider these scriptures, regarding the use of...

"In the days"

2Kings 15:29;  1Chron.4:41; Esther 1:1; Jer.1:3; 3:6; 26:18;  Amos 1:1; Micah 1:1; Zeph.1:1; Zech.14:5; Dan.2:44; Matt.2:1; Luke 1:5

When the phrase "in the days of" is used; it points to a period of time over which a person holds a capacity of great influence and control over many, such as a ruling position. 

If Antipas were a faithful witness of Jesus, who held significance influence over the Christian congregation for a recognized period of time; Is it not likely that there would have been additional mention of him, by those who wrote the Greek scriptures?

The other alternative, is that the "Days of Antipas", refers to an authority and power, outside the Christian congregation.

Other than Herod Antipas; there is no other Antipas referred to in the scriptures, to assist and guide us in our effort to decipher by scripture, that reference of Jesus at Rev.2:13.

Let's look at the meaning of "Antipas".
It actually means, against ("anti" -G473) the Father ("pas/pata" -G3962).
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?strongs=G473&t=KJV
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?strongs=G3962&t=KJV
Consider the reason why this reference to him was adopted by the early Christian writers.

Who is severing the relationship between our heavenly Father, and His priestly sons? Who is, the "Anti-Pas"?
From the scriptures cited above, you may have noticed that it is the "man of lawlessness" found at  2Thess.2:1-2,3-4. That ruling identity over God's Temple, is the "abomination causing desolation" (Matt.24:15; Mark 13:14) to God's Temple (the "holy place" -1Cor. 3:17) and designated habitation of God's spirit (Eze.8:6). 
https://pearl-disgustingthing.blogspot.com

  - [NOTE: The stated purpose of those with the spirit of Elijah, is to restore that relationship *(Luke 1:16-17)]

That desolating abomination, tramples God's priesthood underfoot, and severs the bond between God and His dwelling/habitation/people (Eze.8:6; 44:6-7,8-9; Mark 13:14; Mal.3:1-2,3). The final Elijah must restore God's covenant with the Temple Priesthood (Deut.10:8; 21:5; Mal.2:8; 3:1-2,3), and the relationships between spiritual fathers and sons 
(https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2016/01/elijah-turns-hearts.html).

Again, back to Rev.2:13
I submit to you, that Rev.2:13 should read;
"I have seen your deeds and that your dwelling is where Satan holds authority and power. You hold to my name, and have not disowned my faith even during the Days of Antipas, in which the faithful witness of me was killed at your side, in that dwelling of Satan."

I suggest an examination of the Greek interlinear for comparison:
(https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/rev2.pdf)

Since this is one of Revelation's prophecies, how does it apply in the time of the end?
Rev.16:13-16; 13:11,14,15,8,1,2,4 depicts for us, were Satan's throne is invested. Sure enough, Rev.13:7 shows us, that Satan's arm of power, does overcome God's anointed elect (Rev.12:17; 13:2,7,10; Luke 21:24; Col.2:8). Rev.11:7, shows us that those representing the faithful "two witnesses", are also killed by that identity, just as John the Baptist was killed by Antipas.

There certainly is an End-time presence of God's faithful, during a Satanic rule by an identity just like Herod Antipas. That identity, does exactly what Herod did, to the last herald(s)... the Elijah to come.
-  "I have seen your deeds and that your dwelling is where Satan holds authority and power (Rev.13:2,7). You hold to my name, and have not disowned my faith (Rev.14:12; 11:3,7; 6:9; 12:11,17; 13:7,2) even during the Days of Antipas, in which the faithful witness of me was killed at your side, in that dwelling of Satan."

***

John the Baptist was a faithful witness of Jesus (Matt.11:11; John 1:34,29).
In a similar position as John the Baptist, there is a final herald to come in the spirit of Elijah (Matt.17:10-13) as John did (Luke 1:13,17). Jesus said that this future Elijah will "restore all things". We gain insight into what "things" which the spirit of Elijah restores, at Luke 1:16,17. 
(see Mal.1:6; 3:1,2,3,4).

The relationship between our Father God and his priestly sons, is severed in the time of the last Elijah 
(1Pet. 2:5;  1Cor.3:16; Dan.8:11,13,17; 9:17,26; 11:31-33; Rev.13:10,7; 11:2; Dan.11:35-37;  2Thess.2:4). 
  - (https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2015/01/who-are-gods.html)
The restoration of that relationship, between spiritual fathers and sons, must be restored by the final herald.
  - (https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2016/01/elijah-turns-hearts.html)

So why does Jesus bring up his faithful witness and the days of Antipas within the prophetic book of Revelation? (Rev.2:13)

John the Baptist had already been killed many decades before Revelation was written. The book of Revelation is being written to the seven congregations/towns of spiritual Israel (Rev.1:11; 2:12-13; Matt.10:23; Rom.9:6; Gal.4:28,31,26). Jesus' purpose in bringing up historical identities (Rev.2:14,20,13), is to teach and illuminate his later-day disciples about their similar circumstances 

(Rev.3:3; Matt.24:42; Luke 21:36; Rev.1:3; Matt.13:16,11,13,15).

-  By declaring what happened to John the Baptist at the hand of Antipas; Jesus is declaring what will also happen to the final Elijah in the time of the end (Rev.13:15;** Rev.11:7)

(Deut.21:5;  1Cor.6:1,2,3,4; John 20:21-22,23)
(http://pearl-judgeangels.blogspot.com/)
   (Antithesis of John 20:22 = Rev.13:15,14; 19:20)
   **(https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2018/02/who-is-false-prophet-who-gives-breath.html)

Jesus is commending those who stand up to be faithful, even under a powerful demonic climate where death is not only threatened, but has even been demonstrated, by the death of Jesus' final faithful witnesses (Rev.11:7; John 16:2). Yet Jesus says that those faithful, are "at your side". 

The "eagles" who are "taken" (Luke 17:30,31,32,33,34,35,37**; Isa.57:1,2) feast on those slain (Job 39:27-28,29-30; **Luke 17:37 NKJV; Rev.12:14,6; 11:3)
http://eagle-or-vulture-obadiah.blogspot.com/

How?

Like Jesus, the sacrifice of their life for truth involves their providing a testimony of truth, which is a provision of spiritual food (Rom.6:5; John 6:53,54,55; 12:24-26; Eph.5:29; Rev.6:9; 11:7; 12:10-11; John 12:24; Mark 8:35;  1Cor.12:7,27; 10:17).

At Matt.17:3 we learned that when Jesus is glorified on God's holy mountain (Matt.17:1;  2Pet.1:18; Rev.14:1; Isa.2:1-2)...

with him will be those who represent God's holy prophets and law-giving leaders. Moses lead God's people out of captivity in Egypt (Rev.13:10; 11:8) and Elijah stood up against the prolific idolatry that overtook God's people in his day, separating them from God (1Kings 18:21,30; 19:10,14 (Dan.12:11; 8:11-12);  1Kings 18:36,22,40; 19:1; Rev.2:20). 

Both roles are required just previous to the return of Christ (Mal.3:1-2,3-4,16; Rev.3:5; Mal.3:17-18) 

  - (https://two-witnesses-elijah-and-moses.html).

    - (https://the-constant-feature.html)

      - **(https://abomination-of-desolation-toward-feature.html)

How do we know that the spirit of Elijah is given to more than just Elijah and John the Baptist?

Because if we look again at what Jesus said (after the death of John the Baptist) and while the 3 apostles were looking at Moses and Elijah, he declared; "‘To be sure, Elijah comes and will restore all things."

If we consult Mal.3:1-2,3, we see that this restoration, is of the priesthood of God's Temple.

(https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mal.3%3A1-3&version=NIVUK)

John the Baptist did not accomplish that, but the messenger of the covenant at Mal.3:1-2,3 does. That messenger is also sent, to make preparations "before the Day of the Lord" (Luke 1:17; Mal.3:1).

We know that Jesus promised to return again (John 14:3; Matt.24:3; Rev.2:23; 22:12). He will again have a prophet arrive in the spirit of Elijah, and that one will, restore the force of the priesthood covenant (Rev.10:1; Gen.9:13; Num.25:13; Heb.8:1; Rev.5:9-10).

(https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Rev10%3A1%3B+Gen.9%3A13%3B+Num.25%3A13%3B+Heb.8%3A1%3B+Rev.5%3A9-10&version=NIVUK)

Malachi tells us how... through discipline and refinement. Elijah (the messenger of the covenant) will chastise them, to purify them of their error and sin (Dan.11:35; 12:10; Mal.3:1-2,3-4; Rev.3:3,17-19; Heb.12:11). He will prepare them for the arrival of their high priest, so that the intended eternal service of that heavenly Temple in the Kingdom of their Father, can be inaugurated (Heb.8:1,3,5-6; Rev.5:9-10;  1Pet.2:5,9; Rev.15:8; 21:1-3).

(https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Heb.8%3A1%2C3%2C5-6%3B+Rev.5%3A9-10%3B+1Pet.2%3A5%2C9%3B+Rev.15%3A8%3B+21%3A1-3&version=NIVUK)

Before that can happen, the last of those priests, must be cleansed of their captive subjection to the abomination that tramples them.

(Rev.11:2; Dan.8:11;  2Thess.2:4; Rev.13:7,10; Col.2:8; Luke 21:24; Mark 13:14) 

  - (https://the-greatest-tribulation-why.html)

    - ( https://trample--How-does-it-happen?)

(https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Rev.11%3A2%3B+Dan.8%3A11%3B+2Thess.2%3A4%3B+Rev.13%3A7%2C10%3B+Col.2%3A8%3B+Luke21%3A24%3B+Mark13%3A14&version=NIVUK)

************

More about Rev.2:13...

Herod Antipas was king of the Jews. Yet just as John the Baptist publicly exposed, Antipas was unfaithful to the laws of God. John paid for that exposure with his life (Matt.14:3-4,10). Antipas was an unfaithful king and leader over God's nation. He was deeply involved in Roman politics and had an alliance with Rome. His father was Herod the Great who is responsible for the slaughter of the innocents, in his attempt to destroy young Jesus Christ (Matt.2:13,16).

The spirit within these unfaithful leaders, is that of the Devil (Rev.16:13-14,15;  1Tim.4:1;  2Cor.11:13-15; Rev.2:9; 3:9; Matt.24:24-25;  2Thess.2:1-2). The wicked leaders of God's people have Satan's spirit residing and operating within them.

The circumstances being pointed to within Jesus' warning at Rev.2:13, is relevant in the time of the scroll's fulfillment.

  - (future link to "Where is Satan's throne?")

Many related topics have been touched upon in this post. I do hope that if you desire deeper understanding of them, you will read the links offered within this post, use the search box, or use the contact box to send me your questions.

Love in Christ,
Pearl

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"All Slain on the 'EARTH' "

QUESTION:

Can you explained about the Harlot and how she is responsible and blood guilty for all slain on the earth ? Rev.18:24 (In light of your interpretation that the "Harlot" are those who break their covenant with God.)

REPLY:
Although the guilt referred to has been interpreted as "false religion" as bearing accountability for all those slain in literal, worldly warfare;

that erroneous interpretation can be dismantled if we first learn what is meant by the "earth" of which those slain belong.

It would help you greatly to learn that first,

found here: (world-earth-home.html)

You will come to perceive there, that the "earth" where the harlot murders is not the world at all, among other essential facts needed for your understanding of Rev.18:24.

I do hope that when you are done reading about the authentic meaning of "earth", you will return to this post.

~  ~  ~  ~  ~  ~  ~

To start, I will just refer to Eze.44:7,
where it shows how that Covenant was broken.
(The covenant was for a priesthood, whose sacrifices would be clean and acceptable -Deut.10:8; 21:5;  1Chron.15:2; Rev.5:9-10;  1Pet.2:9). 
(Rom.2:29;  1Pet.2:5,9,10; Eph.5:27;  1Cor.3:16; 6:19; Rev.5:10) These broke that service agreement (Jer.33:21; Mal.2:5-9; 3:1-3), by the placing of counterfeit uncircumcised priests to care for the Temple and it's service to YHWH (Eze.44:8; Mark 13:14; Dan.12:11).

In doing this, how is the Harlot guilty of shedding blood?
Through the Beast she rides (consisting of these counterfeit "Gentile" uncircumcised priests/princes;
she persecutes, dominates, and sentences them as worthy of death, through them (John 16:2; Rev.11:7; 13:15; 9:1,3,10;  2Thess.2:4; Dan.11:31;  2Chron.13:9) (Rev.13:10; Luke 21:24).
("The Greatest Tribulation - What, and Why?")

Now to get to your question, of "ALL" blood being shed by this Harlot....
Just for a quick illustration...
If you have a bowl of fruit...let's say,,,apples, oranges, and bananas.
If you say "all the juice" of the apples, then you do not mean the juice of the oranges or bananas.
"But" you may say..., "Rev.18:24 does not limit whose blood we are talking about.".
True, but the Bible does.
If we really desire accurate understanding, we will not take this verse out of context,
but instead, we will seek the scriptures to know what was meant here.
Jesus tells us.
Please see the rest of the picture, at Matt.23:34,35,36,37.
Note especially Matt.23:35.
"All the blood" is mentioned here. But is it "all the blood" of everyone???
No.
All the righteous blood. Having "righteous" blood, is actually a rare possession (Rev.19:8).
If you compare Rev.18:24 to Rev.6:9; the word for "slaughtered" is the same. The Greek for "slain" infers shedding blood in martyrdom.
When Rev.18:24 lists 
"And in her was found the blood of prophets and saints, and of all who were slain on the earth.”; 
it is not saying that the "prophets and saints" are in addition to "all those slain"...
it is kindly giving us the meaning of "all those slain", AS the "prophets and saints". 
(see also Acts 7:51,52,53)
Rev.18:24 does not say "all those slain in the world",
but rather, "in the earth" (Greek: "inhabited home" John 14:23). This symbol refers to those
in covenant with God, those within "Jerusalem" (Matt.23:37; Luke 13:33; Matt.5:34,35; Acts.7:48,49,50) (Isa.60:1,13-14) (Zech.11:4; Rev.6:9-11; 12:11; Mark 8:35). 

     [Note that the place where righteous prophets are killed (Rev.18:24), must be within "Jerusalem" (Luke 13:33)].

[God's "footstool" ("earth" which He "made" -Eph.2:10; Heb.3:6; 11:10; Isa.43:7; Acts 17:24; Mark 14:58;  1Cor.3:16; Acts 7:49; Isa.60:13) The resting place of God's feet (the "earth"/"sanctuary", which He hath made -Eph.2:10;  2Cor.5:1; Heb.11:10; Ps.132:7-9), is not Satan's filthy world.]
In speaking of Zion, God said,
“All the descendants of those who oppressed you
will come bending low before you,
and all those who despised you
will bow down at your feet.
They’ll call you ‘The City of the Lord,’
‘Zion of the Holy One of Israel.’”
“He has given you the glory of Lebanon,
and it will come to you,
the cypress, and the plane tree, and the pine,
to adorn the place of MY SANCTUARY;
and I will make THE PLACE OF MY FEET, glorious." (Isa.60:14,13; Dan.8:11) (Matt.5:35)
Yes, God's resting place for His feet, is the "earth" (Acts 7:49),... His "sanctuary" of His Temple. 
We know that Temple cannot be made by human hands 
(Mark 14:58; Matt.16:18; Eph.2:20-22; Zech.4:9;  1Chron.22:10; Ps.2:6-8; Heb.1:5;  1Pet.2:5).

(Eph.2:10; Isa.29:23; 43:7,10,21;  1Pet.2:9)
In the Book of Revelation, Jesus told us that there would be a false prophet/two horned beast, from the "earth"/footstool/Temple sanctuary (Isa.66:1; Ps.132:7; Isa.60:13) (Rev.13:11,14-15; 19:20), who orders the deaths of the faithful (Rev.13:11,14-15; 11:7). Hopefully you can see from this, that when the WT interprets "all the blood shed on earth"
as meaning all those of Satan's world slaughtered in carnal warfare;
they are grossly mistaken. 
     Satan's world society is not the "earth" (Greek:"inhabited homeland"), 
     but is the "sea" (Isa.57:20; Jude 1:13; Rev.13:1).
     The symbols "earth" and "sea", are each a separate identity within scripture. 
     "Earth" does not have the same meaning as "sea".
     Satan's "sea" is his world, to which members of the "earth" 
     should not belong (John 15:19). To the religious leaders of God's people, 
     Jesus said;
     "You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world (the "sea"/age/system); I am not of this world."
     ...and of his followers;
"I have given them your word and the world has hated them, for they are not of the world any more than I am of the world. They are not of the world, even as I am not of it." (John 17:14,16).
LINK: ("World / 'Earth' / Home")
These worldly pawns of Satan (the tumultuous "sea") who engage in carnal warfare and it's murder, do not hold within themselves, "righteous blood" (Exo.20:13), as the "earth" does.
There is no "righteous blood" in Satan's world, so Satan's world cannot be the same as the "earth", which does contain the "righteous blood" which is shed/martyred (Matt.23:35), and is the place where God rests His holy feet.
In God's eyes, the "sea" (and the physical world at carnal war) are already spiritually dead (Eph.2:1,2; Col.2:13 a). They cannot be "slain" (as righteous martyrs) within God's "footstool"/"earth"/Greek-"homeland".
"All" the blood "Jerusalem" sheds "on earth" (***Matt.23:35; Luke 13:33; Rev.18:24), is the righteous blood of God's servants where His footstool resides (Isa.66:1; Lam.2:1; Matt.5:35; Ps.132:7-9).
It is they who apostatize from within God's "earth"/Greek-"homeland" ("Jerusalem"), who kill the faithful (see Matt.23:37,34-36,38) in the name of God. (Isa.66:5; Luke 6:22; John 16:2)
This is also the situation, in the time of the end (Rev.18:24; 13:11,15; 11:7; 6:9-11).
"Everyone" who kills God's prophets (Rev.18:24; 11:7), "imagines they are rendering a service to God" (John 16:2). Is that true of the carnal warfare in Satan's world? Are God's prophets dying in worldly warfare? (Rev.18:24; Isa.1:21; Jer.4:31; Lam.2:1)
Do the political Nations in Satan's world, believe they are performing a service to God by killing anointed ones who practice neutrality? (John 16:2)

You may wonder then, 
Who is the "Gentile" Beast (from the "sea"/"abyss" -Rev.13:1; 11:7) that the unfaithful anointed Harlots/false prophets use, to kill the faithful (Rev.13:11,15) (Rev.11:7) (Rev.17:6; 18:24)?
You may discern that, from a consideration of the scriptures contained in these three links...
(Symbolic death by "World")
("What is 'Jew' / 'Gentile'?")
(Pearl-disgustingthing.blogspot.com)
("Abomination Causing Desolation")
in that order.
"Leviathan", is Lord of the "Sea"/abyss (Rev.9:11).
(pearl-leviathan.blogspot.com)

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