Friday, June 13, 2014

The Good News -- What is it? Who is it for? / 1914 ("Earth")

At Matthew 24:14, it reads:
"And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come."

I am sure most of my readers are familiar with how this is scripture has been interpreted, due to their indoctrination by the Organization of "Jehovah's Witnesses". That doctrine, as many Watchtower doctrines, changed over time.
When I was taught about this interpretation years ago, That doctrine defined this "good news of the kingdom" as
Jesus Christ returned in kingdom power in 1914, and the "Thousand Years" of Christ's kingdom, as begun. 
("BACK in 1914, Jesus was installed as King of God’s Kingdom, and the Lord’s day began.” - w88 10/15 pp. 15-20")
(see footnote)
It was said that the reason why we still see Satan reigning over the world, is explained by his "ruling in the midst of his enemies" (Ps.110:2); but that "Jehovah's Witnesses" experience the first benefits of that reign, through their "spiritual paradise". Since then, 1914 is touted as the year Jesus began his presence with his faithful slave (Matt.24:3) which contradicts the latter part of Matt.28:20. I suppose then, that the recent preaching of "the good news of the kingdom" has shifted toward highlighting the future benefits which the Bible promises, under divine reign.

Is this really what Jesus had in mind, when he spoke of the "Good News of the Kingdom"? (Matt.24:14)
Consider these scriptures:
Isa.61:1-3; John 20:21; Luke 4:18-19; John 8:32; Isa.48:20; Luke 21:28; Jer.31:11; Isa.52:1; Eze.14:22-23; John18:9; Matt.24:21NKJV; Dan.12:1; Jer.39:18NIV; Dan.12:3-4; Rev.20:12; Dan.12:2.

The message that Christ began his reign in 1914 does not seem to be "good news" at all, because "the whole world" is still lying "in the power of the wicked one" (1John 5:19) for more than a century since. Christ's "kingdom power" would seem impotent, other than it's supposed advocation, favor toward, and endorsement of the Watchtower Corporation, and their assertion that all it's powerful works are manifestations of Christ's Kingdom power, through them exclusively (Matt.7:22,23,21; 24:4,5,24,25;  2Thess. 2:1,2).
When Ps.110:2 and Isa.2:3 tell us that Christ's kingdom scepter will be channeled through "Zion" (Rev.14:1) and Jerusalem (Rev.21:2), is Zion the Watchtower Corporation? Is "Zion" only the governing body of today?
Since we read that Christ's reign on Zion is with the 144000 (Rev14:1), why is it that the remnant of that group today is subjugated, censored, and dominated by non-anointed "elders"? (1Cor. 6:2-3; Rom.2:28-29; Luke 21:24; Rev.13:10; Col.2:8). Why does the WT describe Zion's members as "They do not have anymore spirit than the members of the great crowd have"? 
(1Cor. 3:16; 6:19;  1Pet. 2:5; Eph.2:20-22;  1John 2:20,27)
(The Watchtower 5/1/07 p. 31)
If the anointed do not have a special portion of holy spirit, how then does the governing bdy extend the power of Christ's kingdom scepter, distinguishing them as "Zion", and as distinct in comparison to the "great crowd"?
     [Note: The WT "great crowd" doctrine asserts that the members of this group
                  do not belong to the anointed priesthood.
                 Please know that this is not what the scriptures teach,
                 nor what I believe to be true (greatcrowd).]

  The "labor pains" (Greek of Matt.24:8; Mark 13:8); which supposedly heralded Christ's "arrival in kingdom power" (or presence/parousia) present two problems to the reasonable mind. *Would the kingdom be "born" at the start of labor pains, or at the end of them? *Would the "labor pains" take place in Satan's world (as it's mother in labor); or, is the Kingdom born from a different source in heaven? (Rev.12:1,2). This cuts to the very heart of the matter... Does the Great Tribulation take place in Satan's world, or, among the body members of Christ (Rev.12:17; 20:7-9; Luke 21:20; Rev.16:13-16; 17:14; 19:11,14; Eph.2:6;  2Cor. 10:3-5)

Also necessary to be discerned, is which kingdom Christ arrives to establish. Is it God's eternal kingdom, or his time-limited "Thousand Year" kingdom?
When did Jesus begin to be a king?...(Matt.21:5; John 1:49; 18:36,37; Luke 17:20,21; 11:20) (Eph.1:19-21; Luke 22:69; Ps.110:1-2;  1Cor. 15:25,24; Dan.2:44) (Rev.19:16; 3:21; 20:6).
(Eph.1:10; Rev.14:1)
When does Christ's limited-time kingdom begin and end?
When are the "Thousand Years", and
when does God's eternal Kingdom begin?
When we are told that Christ's last enemy, death, is "brought to nothing"
when and how does this occur?
(1Cor. 15:26; John 5:24;  1John 3:14;  1Pet. 1:23)

God's Word teaches us that a foremost purpose of Christ's "Thousand Year" kingdom, is to bring to nothing Satan's world (Ps.110:1,2; Heb.2:14; John 5:24). Another purpose, is to "gather into his storehouse, the wheat sons of the kingdom (Matt.3:12; 13:37-38,43). Each faithful one during the "thousand years", will be appointed over the belongings of Christ in the eternal Kingdom of God to come (Matt.25:23; Luke 16:11; 19:17; Dan.7:13-14,18,25,21-22,27)

As king, Christ is collecting together the kingdom administration as they are called, tested, and judged (Eph.1:9,10,11,12,13,14;  1Cor. 3:13,14;  1Pet. 1:7;  2Cor. 5:10) as to fitness to inherit God's eternal Kingdom. (Matt.25:23; Luke 16:11,12)
Both purposes began in the first century.

    Each heir of God's Kingdom must go through testing by Satan, previous to being sealed
(Luke 22:31; Mark 13:13; John 16:2; Rev.2:9,10,13,17,7,24,26,28; 6:9,11; 3:5,9,12,21,22).
Christ set the pattern in giving one's life for truth and love for God and neighbor, despite the ravages, adversity, opposition, and resistance of Satan's and his agents.
When Jesus and his faithful brothers finally, collectively, and individually cause Satan's fall (Luke 10:19; Rev.12:10,11; 17:14; 19:14,8,15; 2:26,27) (2Cor. 10:3,4,5), Christ then hands his temporary kingdom, along with it's realized purposes, over to God (1Cor. 15:25,24,28).
God then reigns forever (Dan.2:44)...through Christ, and his proven "brothers"/priest-princes (Dan.7:13,14,18,27; Heb.12:28; Rev.1:6; 11:15; Isa.14:2; 60:12; John 3:35; Matt.25:23; 24:45,46,47; Luke 16:10; Dan.4:17).

Many on-line writers have expounded upon the factual reasoning, that neither God's nor Christ's kingdom started in 1914.
The scriptures agree.
A kingdom is not finally "born" when labor begins.
The mother of the kingdom has labor pains (Rev.12:1,2), not Satan's world.
God's kingdom is not born from that demonic source (John 18:36; 17:16; Job 14:4)
The signs/"labor pains" (Mark 13:8) of Christ's presence, are seen with the "woman".
(, not with Satan's world.

Although the WT asserts that 1914 was a year the Society looked forward to with anticipation;
which expectations were affirmed with the outbreak of W.W.I;
we find positive proof that the WT re-wrote it's own history regarding these "prophetic insights",
if one actually reads their original publications.

Some have commented on this.
(see following quote from as follows:
invisible return of Christ; Original position of the Watchtower. Then Charles Taze Russell predicted the Rapture in 1910, followed by End of the World in 1914--later interpreted as invisible return of Christ.
was one of the more important estimates of the start of the war of Armageddon by the Jehovah's Witnesses (Watchtower Bible and Tract Society). They computed 1914 from prophecy in the book of Daniel, Chapter 4. The writings referred to "seven times". The WTS interpreted each "time" as equal to 360 days, giving a total of 2520 days. This was further interpreted as representing 2520 years, measured from the starting date of 607 BCE. This gave 1914 as the target date.
Charles Russell, after being exposed to the teachings of William Miller, founded his own organization - the Jehovah's Witnesses. In 1914 Russell predicted the return of Jesus Christ.
1914, 1918, 1920, 1925, 1941, 1975
JW’s: Here are other dates that the Watchtower Society predicted. 1975 looked likely as it was computed as the 6000th anniversary of the creation of Adam in the Garden of Eden in 4026 BCE. They interpreted Psalms 90:10 as defining the length of a generation to be 80 years. Since 1914 plus 80 equals 1994, they predicted Armageddon would occur around that year. The latest estimate was 6000 years after the creation of Eve, for which no date can be determined with any accuracy.
End of World; Charles T. Russel, Jehovah's Witnesses; later explained that Michael (ie Jesus) had defeated Satan in heaven
Jesus invisible and quiet return to the Earth. (Jehovah's Witnesses, Book: This Means Everlasting Life, page 221) "So A.D. 1914 marks the time of Christ's invisible return in spirit." Explained after they said he would return visibly in 1914

Since this "1914" interpretation is not scriptural and is not correct;

.......What then, is the "Good News of the Kingdom"?
and...When did the preaching of it begin?

This "good news" is not new (Matt.4:23; 3:2; 11:5; Mark 1:14; Acts 20:25; 28:23,31; Luke 2:10,14)
Take note how far (according to scriptural thinking) that message was declared....
Rom.10:18; 1:8; Acts 17:6; Col.1:6,23;  1Thess. 1:8.
Yet ask yourself...
was that message literally proclaimed to every nation of the whole world at that time?
It was declared amid the entirety of God's nationmade up of all nations, tribes, peoples, and tongues
(Rev.5:9,10; Acts 10:34,35; 15:14; 13:47; Isa.49:6; Matt.10:6,7,23).

When Jesus foretold the last sign to occur before the end, (Matt.24:14)
what audience did he have in mind when he said this message would be "declared "in all the inhabited earth"?
Please examine the following scriptural thoughts to form a scriptural basis for your conclusion.

At Rev.3:10, Jesus told us...
"Since you have kept my command to endure patiently, I will also keep you from
         (to be kept from failure -1Pet. 5:10)
 the hour of trial that is going to come on 
the whole world to test the inhabitants of the earth."
The words in bold literally read,
"the whole filled home/land, to test those dwelling in the whole filled home/land". 
Both words used to translate this term (world, earth) are the same word in the Greek words originally written. Yet translations give two different translations of this same word (world, earth). In actuality, the original word simply means, "occupied home/filled homeland".
Here are other examples, which fulfillment occurred only to God's own Nation/Land....
(Jer.1:18; 25:29,30,31,32,33,34; Micah 4:11,13; 3:8)
    Neither the Greek word for "world" nor "planet earth" were originally written in Matt.24:14 or Rev.3:10.
Therefore, that "hour of trial" which is equated with the Great Tribulation, is not promoted by scripture, to include the whole world and all it's inhabitants. Neither is the final proclamation of the "Good News".
Please consider...
Why would Satan test those whom he already owns, who are already under his power of sin and death? (1John 5:19).
Scripture tells us that the sifting tribulation is for the "wheat"...those who are slated to take Satan's dominion from him, by replacing him as heirs of God's creation.
(Luke 22:31;  2Tim. 3:12; John 16:20,21,22; Rev.9:6; 12:17; 2:10)

If you have not already done so,
you may want to consider (
The scriptures contained explain how the "signs" of the Great Tribulation will come in upon the "invited" and "called" candidates to inherit God's Kingdom, primarily (Rev.9:4; 7:3).
That scriptural explanation also makes clear, that the "signs" of the end,
which signal the presence of Christ (and his inspection of his final remnant of slaves), are to be understood spiritually, as occurring among the wheat...
...Spiritual "labor pains" amidst the "woman" (Gal.4:19; Eph.4:13; Rev.12:5)....
not physically, within Satan's world!

The implications of this information, is that the physical and historical signs to which the WT point as validation for their divine favor;
are a blasphemous counterfeit fulfillment of the genuine sign of Christ's return.
This would mean that WWI, and the "Spanish Influenza" are not a part of the "signs"/"labor pains", to which Jesus pointed.
Deducing then, that 1914 was the invisible return of Christ and the birth of his kingdom,
is a baseless conclusion.
Those counterfeit signs do not indicate the appointment of the tested, proven, chosen, and approved "faithful slave" over all Christ's Kingdom belongings upon Mount Zion.
The counterfeit tribulations of Satan's world, do not sanction the hoards of non-anointed belonging to the WT, to be the chosen vessels of God's final proclamation of "good news" 
(Mal.2:4; 3:1; Zech.4:9,11,14; Rev.14:6,7;  1Pet. 2:9; Isa.43:21,10; Rev.11:3,4).

One of the signs Jesus mentioned as indicating the nearness of God's Kingdom, is found in our original cited scripture. (Matt.24:14)
What does the original Greek read? does NOT say "world" (Greek--"Cosmos"), despite current translations.
Rather, we find the same word as Rev.3:10...
(Interlinear Link)
"filled home/inhabited homeland".
(John 14:23;  2Cor. 6:16; Eph.3:17; Rev.21:3; Phil.3:20;  1Cor. 3:9; Luke 8:8,15)
Yet we do see the fact that this message will be preached within the filled "all the Nations".
Does this mean that in a literal way....every person in every nation will hear this "good news of the Kingdom"?
Consider other Bible references to "all the Nations", to see who God may be referring to...

"And people of all nations will call you blessed, for you will be a land/earth, of delight". (Mal.3:12)

"Their descendants will be known among the nations and their offspring among the peoples.
  All who see them will acknowledge that they are a people the LORD has blessed." (Isa.61:9)

"And they sang a new song, saying:
'You are worthy to take the scroll
    and to open its seals,
because you were slain,
    and with your blood you purchased for God
    persons from every tribe and language and people and nation.
You have made them to be a kingdom and priests to serve our God,
    and they will reign on the earth.” (Rev.5:9,10)

"No longer shall your name be called Abram, but your name shall be Abraham; for I have made you a father of many nations." (Gen.17:5; also Rom.4:18)
As Rev.5:10 showed us, the "kingdom and priests" are from many nations (Rev.5:9; Acts 10:34-35) and yet are all considered children of Abraham (Gal.3:29; Rom.2:28,29)
About them we read;
"In your seed all nations of the earth shall be blessed, because you have obeyed My voice." (Gen.22:18)

Let's look closer at that last scripture.
There is says that "all the nations" will be blessed by Abraham's seed 
(Gen.22:18; 17:4-5).
Does this mean that all people from all nations will be blessed (and healed -Rev.22:2)?
Is this the whole world?
(See Matt.13:15; Isa.6:10; 27:11; John 12:40; Isa.29:10; 44:18;  2Thess. 2:11,12,10)
This healing is only for those who repent and return to God 
(Jer.3:22; Eze.33:11; Acts 28:27; Luke 2:10,14; Matt.13:15).
[Review scriptures: Gen.22:18; Rev.22:2; Matt.24:14; Isa.49:5-6; Matt.22:9-10]

"All the nations" being blessed is conditional (Acts 10:34,35; John 3:18), 
and that blessing will not be for all the world,
nor not even for all those who consider themselves God's people.
(Matt.7:23;  1John 2:17;  1Thess. 1:8,9;  1Chron. 28:9; Isa.1:28; Jer.10:25; 25:29; Rev.11:18).
"All the nations" who are blessed, are only those from among all the nations, whom God chooses to redeem (Rev.5:9,10;  1Pet. 2:10,2) along with those who "receive" them (Matt.10:40,41,42;  1Cor. 6:2; John 20:23). This translation agrees with the Greek words originally written, which translate as a group comprised of  "people FROM/OF all nations".

In the time of the end, "all the earth"/"filled home"/"occupied land" (consisting of a people from all nations), are worshiping an Image (Rev.13:8,15,14; 19:20;  1Kings 9:6,7,8,9) 
Only those who "return to God" will be blessed, and healed of their backsliding idolatry 
(Jer.4:1,2 --"then the nations will invoke blessing");
Isa.44:22; Jer.3:22; 30:17; Hosea 6:1; 14:1,2,3,4,5; Ps.92:12; 133:3; Isa.26:19; 27:6; Micah 5:7
(OR, if they do not repent-- Eze.33:11; Jer.18:15,16; Rev.9:20; 2:5,16,21,22; 18:19,20).
    Gen.22:18 clearly applies to the repentant who accept Abraham's sealed seed....not to all people of all nations. (Gen.12:3; Gal.3:8; Luke 10:16; Gal.3:29)
Then we should reconsider how the scriptures themselves, use the term "occupied homeland", which is often mis-translated "world"/"earth". There are Greek and Hebrew words for "world" and "earth", but the Bible's writers did not use them when they originally wrote these verses in Hebrew and Greek. They used instead, the word that means basically, "homeland inhabitants" (LINK).

We are told that the good news of the kingdom, is declared "earth-wide". Jesus compared that span of his genuine arrival, to the light flashed forth by lightening (Matt.24:27-28). Such spiritual light originates with God (Ps.36:9; James 1:17) and Christ (John 8:12). Those who are messengers of that light (Matt.5:14; 6:22; 10:40) have the tongue of the taught ones (Isa.50:4). Their voice (trumpet -Isa.58:1) "goes out into all the earth" (Ps.19:3-4; Rev.14:6). The light they emit, means life (John 17:3; John 1:4; 8:12).... good news to those who accept it!

Now, let's get to what this has to do with Matt.24:14.
Note in Isa.44:22 that God's blessing is only possible, partly because the repentant of God's nation, have been redeemed. (Rev.14:3)
Such a message of redemption and liberation for the responsive and repentant, would certainly be, "good news".
In fact, the scriptures themselves point to this,
as being the everlasting "good news" of the kingdom (Rev.14:6), which Jesus foretold as being declared in "all the earth/land/filled home" as a witness to them.
(Isa.41:27; 44:21,22,23; Matt.24:14; Jer.31:10,11; Mal.3:6; Jer.50:34; Matt.24:31; Zech.9:16; Isa.62:3,2; 43:1,5,10; 48:20; 49:24,25; 51:11; 52:9,10,11; 44:23; Rev.12:11,12; 18:20; Mal.3:17; Eph.1:3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10) (Matt.24:14; 10:23; Isa.48:20; Rev.18:4; (*Matt.10:23 --*note: "towns of Israel") (Rev.1:11)
At 2Cor.5:17-20 (John1:11-12; Rom.9:2-3) Paul spoke of the gospel as an appeal to become reconciled to God (Jer.4:1; Zech.1:3; Neh.1:9; Mal.3:7). "Reconciliation" is a returning to God. That is to return to a God that you previously were close to. That is the good news of restoring the relationship between God and His people. That offering of regaining peace with God through repentance, has always been the good news (2Cor.5:19NIV ).
    During the Great Tribulation; All God's people are taken captive to demonic deception through the false prophet and its Gentile Beast (Col.2:8; Luke21:24; Rev.13:10; 16:13-14; 1Tim.4:1; Matt.24:24-25). The image of the Beast is then idolized (Rev.13:7-8). During that time, even the anointed are thrown down, along with divine truth which they are responsible to declare (Phil.2:15; Rev.12:4; Luke21:24; Dan.8:10-13; 11:16,31; 12:7; Mark13:14; 2Thess.2:4).

From the forgoing scriptures, you may have noticed two things,
in which, based upon the scriptures....
1. The "Good News of the Kingdom",
    is not some announcement about 1914 and the invisible return or presence of Christ,
    based upon demonic counterfeit signs in Satan's own world over which he controls.
    (Mark 13:22; Rev.13:14; 19:20; 2:20; 16:14,15;  2Thess. 2:9,1,2,3; Isa.32:6,7;
     Ps.2:1,2,3; Jer.5:5; Ps.2:2; Rev.17:14; 16:16; 20:8,9; 11:5).
    That counterfeit arrival of 1914 is actually in opposition to the genuine kingdom,
    by refusing to yield to the authentic arrival of the Master and his messengers (Rev.3:3).
2. Being declared to "all nations", is not literal, nor
    everyone in the entire world. (Luke 4:18; Rev13:10; Jer.31:11; Isa.48:20)
    It is, as the original language states, declared in all the "inhabited/filled,
    earth/occupied homeland" / "towns of Israel".
        Jesus has told us about who this "homeland" is...
(1Cor. 3:9; John 14:23; Rom.8:9;  2Cor. 6:16; Eph.3:17;  1John 2:24; Rev.21:3; 3:20; 
John 14:2,3; Eph.2:10; Heb.11:10; 12:22,23; Isa.24:3-4; Ps.105:10).
He also told us who receives that final witness...
(Matt.10:23; Rev.1:11; Gal.6:15,16; Heb.4:12)
2Cor. 4:3 reads;
"If the Good News we preach is hidden behind a veil, it is hidden only from people who are perishing."
(also  2Tim. 3:7,5; Isa.6:9; 29:10; Rom.11:8;  2Thess. 2:4,10; (1Cor. 3:16);  2Thess 2:13; Rev.14:4; Eph.1:12,11)
The Good News of the Kingdom, is for those few repentant among God's nation, who are being saved by means of redemption.
(1Cor. 1:18;  2Cor. 2:15,16; John 9:39; Luke 18:26; 13:23,24; Matt.7:14; 24:37,21,22;  1Pet. 3:20).
The Good News, is that of the many invited to the marriage feast, there is an opportunity for the "few chosen" to comprehend it 
(Matt.22:14; 13:10-11; Rev.19:9; 22:17; Matt.22:8-10) 
(Rom.9:27; Isa.10:22; Jer.44:14; Joel 2:32; Mal.3:1,2,3; Zech.13:9; Isa.48:10; Dan.11:35; 12:10; Hosea 2:23; Eze.17:22,24; Zech.4:10,8,9; 1:16; Rev.11:1,2; 21:15;  1Cor. 3:13) (due to their repentance and refinement) find redemption....and be reconciled to God.
2Cor. 5:11-21 reads;
"11 Since, then, we know what it is to fear the Lord, we try to persuade others. What we are is plain to God, and I hope it is also plain to your conscience. 12 We are not trying to commend ourselves to you again, but are giving you an opportunity to take pride in us, so that you can answer those who take pride in what is seen rather than in what is in the heart.
13 If we are “out of our mind,” as some say, it is for God; if we are in our right mind, it is for you. 14 For Christ’s love compels us, because we are convinced that one died for all, and therefore all died. 15 And he died for all, that those who live should no longer live for themselves but for him who died for them and was raised again.
16 So from now on we regard no one from a worldly point of view. Though we once regarded Christ in this way, we do so no longer. 17 Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, the new creation has come: The old has gone, the new is here!
18 All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: 19 that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting people’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. 20 We are therefore Christ’s ambassadors, as though God were making his appeal through us. We implore you on Christ’s behalf: Be reconciled to God. 21 God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."


Part Two will describe why this message (Good news of kingdom/redemption) must be trumpeted just before the end (Matt.24:14; Isa.49:24,25),
The Good News--Why?
and Part Three will explain why the time for this declaration, is NOW,
and how you can share in giving it.
The Good News--When?
For now, please pray about giving all you can to this task, no matter where in the world you may live.

FOOTNOTE: Quotes from other sources are made under the Fair Use Provision for educational purposes.


  1. You said"Both words used to translate this term (world, earth) are the same word in the Greek words originally written. Yet translations give two different translations of this same word (world, earth). In actuality, the original word simply means, "occupied home/filled homeland".
    Please show one interlinear that shows the same word for both "earth" and "nations".
    This link shows the 2 words for "earth" and "nations" are NOT the same word. Other interlinears confirm this.
    The strongs concordance also shows that there are 2 seperate words with differant meanings for the words "earth" and "nations".
    Your link doesnt work. :-)

    1. I left your reply on the Main Page. It is located here:
      If you highlight and right-click that link, you will be able to go there directly.
      Thanks for your comment.

    2. Translators convert the same word (forms of the same Greek word, oikumene) into two different translations. They sometimes translate the word "oikumene" as WORLD. Other times, that translate that word "oikumene" into EARTH, or INHABITED EARTH.
      My point, is that the Greek word "oikumeme" should be translated consistently, as occupied homeland/inhabited plot-homestead/inhabited earth (Not as "world" or "nations"). My reason for objecting that oikumene is translated to read "world", is that there is a different Greek word for "world". It is "cosmos", Not "oikumene".
      You misunderstand what I said if you think I mean that there is one word that means both "inhabited earth" and "world" (or "nations"). The fact that "oikumeme" doesn't mean all three, is precisely my point. Oikumene does NOT mean both earth and world. When you ask for me to show the one word that means both, earth and nations/world, it shows that you misunderstand what my point is.
      Glad you agree that there are other Greek words for world and nations. Whether it is nations, inhabited earth, or world... these words each have their own Greek word in the original Bible writings, and they should not sloppily substitute for one another by translators.
      As regards who "all the nations" are (which are being preached to within the "inhabited earth")(Matt.24:14); Please consider Rev.5:9-10. They are the constituents of God's "inhabited earth"... his habitation of spirit in the earth (Eph.2:22).
      Again I'll mention that links do not work in comments. As per my previous instructions; You need to highlight and copy the link to paste it into your address bar. Press enter. Then you can go there directly.


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