Female Subjection / head covering

A QUESTION from http://www.allexperts.com/el/Jehovah-Witness/:

Jehovah Witness Religion-What is the role of women?
Question: Can a women lead the congregation in a Kingdom Hall and can she reside over a funeral?

ANSWER:

Hello Jane,
Your question is a bit difficult because it is really asking three things; and the answer to each is different.


In the "Subject", you ask what the role of women is in the "Jehovah's Witness" religion.
Yet your question asks if a woman can lead the Congregation in a Kingdom Hall; 
and then, if a woman can reside over a funeral.


I will do my best to give you a thorough answer to all three.


In regards to the religious doctrine of "Jehovah's Witnesses", all baptized women are considered to be in subjection to all baptized men. This means that they can not take the lead in anything within the religion, or within the Kingdom Hall. 
The only exception is what is called "taking the lead out in service". According to doctrine, a woman may, if no male is available, cover her head (to show subjection to the males who are not present), and then proceed to make field service arrangements and offer a closing prayer for that gathering. 
("Field service arrangements", determine who rides in what car with who, and what territory will be covered.) 
Other than that, women do not give "talks" in Kingdom Halls, unless they sit down at a table and put the information in "demonstration" format...a dramatization...a pretend scenario. In this way, it can be construed that she is not really "teaching" the men in her audience.
Of course to anyone who has thinking ability, this is hypocrisy.


I hope this addresses your first question.


As regards the covering of the woman's head to show subjection..."Jehovah's Witnesses" claim that all women are under subjection to all baptized men, and they must display this subjection in order to give the angels in heaven a good example. They base this doctrine upon 1Cor.11:1-2,3-4,5-6,7-8,9-10,11-12,13-14,15-16


1"Imitate me, just as I also imitate Christ.  
2 Now I praise you, brethren, that you remember me in all things and keep the traditions just as I delivered them to you.  
3 But I want you to know that the head of every man is Christ, the head of woman is man, and the head of Christ is God. 
4 Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered, dishonors his head. 
5 But every woman who prays or prophesies with her head uncovered dishonors her head, for that is one and the same as if her head were shaved. 
6 For if a woman is not covered, let her also be shorn. But if it is shameful for a woman to be shorn or shaved, let her be covered. 
7 For a man indeed ought not to cover his head, since he is the image and glory of God; but woman is the glory of man. 
8 For man is not from woman, but woman from man. 
9 Nor was man created for the woman, but woman for the man. 
10 For this reason the woman ought to have a symbol of authority on her head, because of the angels. 
11 Nevertheless, neither is man independent of woman, nor woman independent of man, in the Lord. 
12 For as woman came from man, even so man also comes through woman; but all things are from God. 
13 Judge among yourselves. Is it proper for a woman to pray to God with her head uncovered? 
14 Does not even nature itself teach you that if a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him? 
15 But if a woman has long hair, it is a glory to her; for her hair is given to her[a] for a covering. 
16 But if anyone seems to be contentious, we have no such custom, nor do the churches of God."


I hope that you will let this scripture, upon which "Jehovah's Witnesses" rest this doctrine, to teach you what God's Word actually says in comparison to this doctrine.
Take note of verse 5...
"But every woman who prays or prophesies with her head uncovered dishonors her head, for that is one and the same as if her head were shaved." 
There it says that if a woman prays or prophesies uncovered, she dishonors "HER HEAD". This is saying that she need not show subjection to ALL men, but only her personal head, which is her own husband. This is confirmed at Eph.5:22,23,24:


"Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord. 23 For the husband is head of the wife, as also Christ is head of the church; and He is the Savior of the body. 24 Therefore, just as the church is subject to Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in everything."


Therefore, the "head" of each woman, is not ALL baptized men in general, but only her own husband (baptized or not), should she be married.


Note too, that the praying and prophesying a woman may do in verse 5, is public. 
This CONTRADICTS the doctrine, which prohibits women from saying public prayers or public teaching in Kingdom Halls. 
(This doctrine is hypocritically violated when women preach door-to-door.) 
It seems uncovered women are permitted to take the lead teaching publicly when outside the Kingdom Halls (even in the presence of baptized men), but not inside Kingdom Halls. The Bible does not make this distinction of inside or outside buildings.


Verse 15&16 go well together....
This "Witness" doctrine ignores verse 15, which indicates that this "head covering" is the natural hair a woman possesses upon her head. 
Verse 16 shows that this subject should not raise "contention". 
Paul makes clear that if anyone has a problem with this show of subjection as already cared for by nature itself, that the true churches of God have no such custom of requiring more. 
This he said, to counteract the excessive demands of the Jewish law...which DID require a woman to cover her head in excess of her hair.


We see that "Jehovah's Witnesses" are doing no better than the Jews, in going beyond what is written (Acts 15:28,29;  1Cor.4:6; Matt.23:4; Isa.28:10).


Finally, verse 10 reads:
"For this reason the woman ought to have a symbol of authority on her head (Deut.11:18), because of the angels."

The "Witnesses" assume that this is speaking of the angelic spirits in heaven. They assume that these angels are lower than mortal women, in that women set a teaching example to these mighty Sons of God. 
According to the Bible, the PERFECT MAN Christ, was made a little LOWER than the heavenly angels (Heb.2:7; Phil.2:7). 

Now from Jesus Christ...we must take a BIG step down a notch to go to IMPERFECT SINFUL HUMANS. Are we to reason that imperfect women today are really a teaching example to the mighty perfect Sons of God in Heaven (1Tim.2:14), while at the same time, unfit to teach imperfect men?


Let's see what this verse really means. 
1Cor.11:10:
"For this reason the woman ought to have a symbol of authority on her head, because of the angels."
The symbolism Paul refers to, can be found if we return once again to Eph.5:22,23,24; only this time lets look at what a woman's subjection to her own husband is compared to...
Verse 23&24 read:
23 For the husband is head of the wife, as also Christ is head of the church; and He is the Savior of the body. 24 Therefore, just as the church is subject to Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in everything."


Did you notice the comparison to Christ and the "Congregation"?
How does the subjection of the anointed "Congregation" (Christ's own wife/body) compare to "angels"?  (1Cor.12:27,28;  1Cor.3:16)


It is a fact, according to the Bible, that the "New Creation" of anointed (Christ's wife), are called "angels". You can see many scriptures which prove this identity, at 
pearl-judgeangels.blogspot.com


In order for these "angels" ("Greek" for "messenger")...to prove faithful and be sealed, they must remain in union and subjection to the "head" Christ, as his body (Col.1:18). 

(Matt.22:30; Eph.2:6; Heb.1:6,7;  1John 2:28;  1Cor.6:15) 

It is in regards to THESE angels, that Paul makes reference a woman showing subjection. A woman's subjection to her OWN HUSBAND, is a visible example to the anointed body of Christ's messengers (John 1:51; Matt.10:5,6,7,27;  2Cor.5:20; 2:17; Rev.22:16,6; 1:20; Phil.2:15; Dan.12:3), as well as an allegory... 

If a chosen one hopes to be among the 144000 conquerors who become established as Christ's "wife"; "she" must have that "symbol of authority (owner) upon her head" (Rev.14:1). 

It is upon the forehead that slaves are spiritually marked by their owner (those with authority over them), whether their master is good (Deut.11:18; Rev.7:3; 14:1; 22:4,3) or evil (Rev.13:16; 17:5;  1Tim.4:1-2).   

"Because of the angels"...is a warning reminder of those who "forsook their proper dwelling place". If you read the context of Jude 1:6,13, you will see that it is speaking of humans who are unfaithful among God's Chosen...."fallen stars" (Phil.2:15;  2Pet.3:17; Rev.2:5; 8:10; 12:4). (who-are-fallen-stars-of-rev124.html)

  Called and Chosen ones must also remember these angelic ones... who "wandered away" from their subjection to their heavenly Father and Lord (2Pet.3:17;  1Cor.6:10; Rev.17:2;  1Thess.5:6,7,3;  2Cor.11:2,3,4), loosing their seal as a submissive slave of God and Christ. 

That can happen to anointed witness/messenger/angels, and is a personal warning to them. These must remain under the authority of YHVH (symbolized by His seal/name of ownership, on their foreheads), without spot from the world, or taint by the unfaithful harlots/wicked stewards (Rev.14:4,5; 17:1,2; 18:4;  1Cor.6:15,16).
"For this reason the woman (bride of Christ) ought to have a symbol of authority ("seal") on her head, because of the angels (who fell)." 1Cor.11:10
In this way, a woman does not speak or teach outside subjection to her head. In this, I speak of the head as Christ (Eph.5:23,24; Col.1:18), and the "woman" as his anointed congregation/"wife" (Gal.4:24; Rev.12:1; Heb.10:36). ("Woman"?)
When teaching, this woman must remain in union with her Lord (John 15:4;  1Cor.6:17) by total subjection to him (Matt.10:27);
just as he remained in subjection to God (John 12:49,50; 7:16; 8:28; 14:10,24; 17:8).


But when you ask, "Can" a woman reside over a funeral...I'm not sure if you are asking about what the doctrine of "Jehovah's witnesses" permits, or the truth of the Bible.
According to "Witness" doctrine, No...once again, due to subjection to baptized males, who are not present (If they were present, they would take over.)... or, 
as an example for the invisible presence of angelic spirit sons of God, who might be scrutinizing whether or not a woman puts a cloth on her head.


If you would like to read about the role of women in the Bible, please consider
pearl-womenteach.blogspot.com
You may learn there, that the Bible expects especially "anointed" women, to work as hard as men in their public teaching. For, in the "body" of Christ, there is "neither male nor female" (Gal.3:28). In that article, you will find the many scriptures that indicate that men and women chosen and anointed by God to be Temple priests, are equal in God's sight; both in glory and in the faithful diligence that God expects of them, as they teach and prophesy, if so chosen to do so (1Cor.12:18,28,29; Acts 2:17,18).


This truth helps to answer your question about "residing over a funeral". My relatives are not Christians. Yet, at the death of a relative, I was asked to give a talk in light of my known familiarity with the Bible. I was able to use the occasion to give a fine witness to many people. Imagine God's disapproval if I had declined that opportunity, in favor of an unscriptural constraint through the doctrines of men! 

(Mark 7:13;  2Tim.4:2; Gal.1:10)


I hope these scriptural considerations answer your question. Thank you for your fine question, and if you feel you need to ask an additional one, please use the "follow up" form.
All the best,
Pearl
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Female Subjection

It has come to my attention that one of the forums has recent posts about me. The opinions expressed are critical and condemning of my position within the body of Christ and my sayings, and claim to have as their righteous and loving goal, my discipline. It is asserted that my female flesh obligates me to be in subjection to all male flesh. Sadly, many have left off reading at this site as a result.
Such pronouncements contain three general claims...
1. That all females (including those chosen to become sons of God) are in submissive subjection to all males.
2. That divine authority rests with men, to criticize and discipline slaves of Christ.
3. That God is limited by gender, in choosing those who are to prophesy.

I am unaware of any words of Christ to the effect of any of these assertions, but for those of you who may feel persuaded to accept these three assertions; I hope to offer scriptural insight into these ideas.

1st forum claim. 
All females (including those chosen to become sons of God -Gal.3:26,28; Rom.8:14) are in submissive subjection to all males.

1Cor.11:3 reads:
"But I want you to know that the head of every man (singular) is Christ, the head of woman (singular) is man (singular), and the head of Christ is God."

How many Christs are head of mankind? One.
How many men are head of woman? One.
Who is that one man who is head of this woman?

1Pet.3:1 reads:
"In the same way, you wives, be submissive to your own husbands so that even if any of them are disobedient to the word, they may be won without a word by the behavior of their wives".
(See also Eph.5:22-23; Col.3:18)

Let's reason on this. What would happen if a man's wife were submissive to all men? What if a woman were told by her husband to stay indoors during a storm, and then she got a call from her neighbor's husband to come over and cook him dinner. Are all men in agreement? Can you imagine the conflict that would result if one woman were in subjection to all men?
Note that Eph.5:23 tells us that the subjection of a wife to her own husband is clearly comparable to the anointed Congregation being in subjection to Christ. Should the Congregation be in subjection to other Lords as well? Or, is subjection to Christ by his anointed "bride", exclusive?
At 2Cor.11:2-3, Paul said;
"For I am jealous for you with godly jealousy. For I have betrothed you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ."
What type of "virginity" are we talking about?
Two verses help us to know this...

"These are the ones who were not defiled with women*, for they are virgins. These are the ones who follow the Lamb wherever He goes. These were redeemed from among men, being first-fruits to God and to the Lamb. And in their mouth was found no falsehood, for they are without fault before the throne of God.", (Rev.14:4-5)
like Christ and all faithful priests of God (1Pet.2:22; Mal.2:7,6).

"For if he who comes preaches another Jesus whom we have not preached, or if you receive a different spirit which you have not received, or a different gospel which you have not accepted—you may well put up with it!" (2Cor.11:3-4)

If the anointed put up with or accept teachings that are not the truth from Christ (John 14:6),
they have lost their spiritual virginity. These do become defiled with the harlot (1Cor.6:15; Rev.17:2; 2:20,21). Their fornication with this "woman"* (Rev.17:3-4) destroys their spiritual virginity. If the lying filth of the harlot remains within a chosen one's thinking and teaching, they have left the truth of Christ and are defiled. These are the ones who need discipline and repentance.

Again...
Spiritual "virginity" is a loyalty to the truth from Christ, and an exclusive subjection to his teachings.
What determination is necessary, in order to preserve this spiritual virginity and loyalty to the truth of Christ?
At 2Cor.11:4, we are clearly told that we must not accept a different spirit or gospel.
Where would such spirits or gospels alienated from the truth of Christ, come from?
It is likely that this would come from false prophets, about which Christ has warned his followers (Matt.24:24-25).
Might some, or indeed most, of these false prophets, be male?
Yes.
Is spiritual "virginity" only for male members of Christ's body?
Are female chosen ones to subject themselves to male false prophets?
If so, how then do they retain their spiritual virginity exclusively for the truth of Christ?

False prophets often have the power to demand compliance to their false doctrines 

(Mark 8:31; John 15:20; Matt.5:10-11; John 16:2; Rev.13:15).
Are female Chosen ones obliged to subject and enslave themselves to obey them (Rom.6:16;  1Cor.7:23)? Spiritual warfare against such lethal false doctrines is incumbent upon all members of Christ's body (2Cor.10:3-4,5; Acts 5:27-28,29;  1Pet.2:9; 5:8-9;  2Tim.4:2; Rom.10:14-15; Acts 18:26; Matt.9:38) regardless of their gender (1Pet.2:20-21,22; 4:13; Acts 14:22; Gal.3:28,26,29;  1Pet.3:7; Rom.16:1-2).
All faithful must resist pressure to compromise to Satan and his liars (James 4:7; Rev.2:2-3,13-14,16,22; 3:8,10;  2Cor.11:4. Satan's ministers must be resisted, not submitted to (2Cor.11:12-13,14-15,20;  1Cor.7:23; Gal.1:10) or obeyed (Rom.6:16). All Christ's "virgins" must preach truth, despite any threat which results (Matt.5:14; 25:24-25,28; 28:19-20; Phil.2:12-13,15-16; Rev.6:9-10,11; 12:10-11; 20:4; 2:10). All are empowered to expose falsehood (Eph.5:11; Luke 10:19; Eph.4:17-18,19; Eze.3:7-8,9-10,11; 2:6; Isa.50:7; Luke 21:15) in defiance of male false prophets (not in subjection to them). The persecution of the faithful (2Tim.3:12) does not result from subjection and submission to the wishes of the persecutors, but is due to subjection to the faithful course of Christ, in defiance of Satan's liars.
Is this assignment only for male members of the Chosen?

If a female Chosen one is to be in subjection to all males, including the wicked who demand she compromise to her Lord (by "virtue" of the physical gonads they possess -1Sam.16:7;  2Chron.16:9 A), how is it possible for any female chosen one, to prove faithful to the truth of Christ?
Is God and Christ wasting their time in choosing any females to inherit the kingdom,
since she will have to submit herself to the first wicked agent of Satan that demands that she compromise?

The scriptures above reply. Those genuinely of God, humbly hear what they stay (John 8:47).

How then is an anointed female to conduct herself with her "own husband"?
This post from Dec.2012 may address that question:
LINK:Marital-subjection-for-sons-of-God
Even this fleshly subjection is second place, to doing what is right, as expressed in the account of Abigail and Nabal
(1Sam.25:1-40)<click on to read.
So female subjection first belongs to God, His Will, and His pleasure and approval (Prov.31:30).


2nd forum claim.
Divine authority rests with men, to criticize and discipline slaves of Christ.

We are likely familiar with the Master's condemnation due the wicked steward, for disciplining his fellow slaves (Matt.24:49; Luke 12:46);
and the fact that wicked slaves are not condemned and punished by any but the returned Christ (Matt.25:19,34,41,46), but there are other scriptures to consider.
Rom.8:33 reads:
"Who will bring a charge against God's chosen saints? It is God who acquits them."
(See also Hosea 4:4)

"Who are you to judge someone else's servant? To their own master, servants stand or fall. And they will stand, for the Lord is able to make them stand." (Rom.14:4)

"Therefore judge nothing before the appointed time; wait until the Lord comes. He will bring to light what is hidden in darkness and will expose the motives of the heart. At that time each will receive their praise (or condemnation) from God" (1Cor.4:5)
(Ec.12:14; Matt.7:1-2)

Whether it is more righteous for a female anointed one to subject herself to the unscriptural judgments of men,
or,
for men to subject themselves to the Word of God;
each must decide.

What then of Revelation's prophets, who seem to judge and condemn?
If you note Rev.11:3-4,5; you may note that the "fire" from their mouths, is not their own thoughts and words, but God's (Rev.11:5; Jer.5:14; 23:29; Hosea 6:5; John 12:48-49; Matt.10:20; Eze.2:7; 3:11*; Rev.13:10*).
(*God's people are in exile/captivity, in the time of the end, and are due this same message.)
These receive their authority to judge (Rev.20:4) from Christ (Rev.2:26-27; 12:5; Jer.23:29; Hosea 6:5), whom they are serving (Rev.11:4; Zech.4:14; James 1:1; Rev.22:3; John 1:51; Eph.2:6).
These prophets provide the Word of God for their hearers, so that all can confirm the scriptural source of their words (2Cor.13:3; Acts 17:11; John 7:16-17,18;  1John 4:1; Matt.7:20).
The message of a true prophet is a scriptural one, not a personal one (Luke 6:42; Rom.14:10).

3rd forum claim. 
God is limited by gender, in choosing those who are to prophesy.

Can God include female prophets within his temple priesthood?
Is there any mention of male and female, as He inducts the living stones,
assigning them their purpose according to His will?
(1Pet.2:4-5;  1Cor.3:16; Eph.2:19-20,21-22; 4:11,12;  1Cor.12:1,4-5,6-7,8-9,10-11,22,24-25,26-27,28-29;  1Cor.7:17; 12:18)

Is there any Biblical proof that God assigns females as prophets?

Luke 2:36-37,38; Judges 4:4;  2Kings 22:14-15,16-17,18-19,20;  2Chron.34:22; Acts 2:18; 21:8-9
(for more info: http://pearl-womenteach.blogspot.com/)

----(https://throughtheeyesofgod-obadiah.blogspot.com)

If a female prophet obeys her divine assignment by declaring what God has shown her,
should she cease doing so in order to be in subjection to wicked men who demand her silence?
If she does, how can she follow the example of Christ and other faithful (Acts 5:27-28,29; Gal.1:10)
and retain the approval of God and their one Lord and Head, Christ (Rom.2:29; Luke 12:8-9)?

There is a path which leads to life (Matt.7:14). It is the highway of holiness (Isa.35:8; 40:3; Ps.118:20; Isa.57:14; 62:10). There is a prophecy about those who are on this road (Jer.31:21-22).
(A study of the Hebrew of that verse, is worthwhile.)
There is a place assigned by God, even for a lowly "woman".
Who will dispute with God? I will not, despite the pressure of prideful attacks by inflated male ego.
Mark 9:33-34,35-36,37; Matt.10:41,40; 25:40
All prophets are rejected, regardless of their gender 

(Acts 7:52; Matt.5:11-12; 23:31-32,33-34,35-36,37-38; Rev.18:24; 17:6). 

The last prophets are no exception (Rev.11:7-8,9-10; 6:9). This is why the truthful information given to prophets by God (Amos 3:7; Rev.10:7), is initially treasured by them with great appreciation; but results in a bitter after effect due to the reaction of their hearers. 

(Eze.3:3; Ps.119:103; Jer.15:16,15,17,20; Rev.10:9-10)

If my accusers truly believe in the subjection of a woman to a man,
just as the Congregation is in subjection to Christ (Eph.5:23;  1Pet.3:15),
then allow me my subjection to my own spiritual Lord and Head,
and do not try to usurp him.
If I were to subject myself to you, I would be committing spiritual fornication;
Just as the ten kings within the "Beast" (Rev.17:12) do so with the ruling Harlot (Rev.17:2)
by their subjection to her and her "wormwood" (Rev.8:10-11; 2:20).
Each of us renders an account to God and Christ...not to other men (Rom.14:12;  2Cor.5:10).

I can only hope that for those readers who have been stumbled by that forum thread,
the scriptures offered here have helped.
(Luke 17:1;  1Cor.11:18-19)

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This subject on "female subjection" continues to be discussed at the forum:
http://4womaninthewildernessforum.yuku.com/topic/13/Female-subjection#.Us2Y5MRDuHg
Reading is open to the public, and posting requires membership.
We hope you will join us, by applying at the site.

I apologize again for less provisions recently. I am dealing with much trouble, and appreciate any prayers offered in behalf of my work.

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Where Do We Go?

I received a letter of appreciation from a reader.
He is searching for spiritual provisions, outside the "Watchtower" (Dan.12:4,9-10,3), because he has recognized the present spiritual famine (Amos 8:11; Rev.18:8). Those considered wicked by God, do not gain understanding (Rev.22:10-11; Dan.12:10,4; Amos 8:12) (Col.2:8; Rev.13:10; 2:10; Mark 8:35; Ps.116:15; Rev.9:6; Amos 8:12). Only through God's grace, and a loyalty of a person toward the Word of God (Matt.13:11,13), will a person be rescued from demonic deception, and find the sayings of life.
Where do we find such sayings, today?
In this era of social media, many are offering spiritual provisions. How can we recognize the difference, between error and divine truth? How can we discern true prophets from false?
I will write some of the points made in his letter, and I will respond to them. I hope the information contained, is helpful to all readers.
-  -  -  -  -  -  -
His letter to me:
"I assumed Pearl wasn't your real name, and if it isn't, I understand and respect your privacy.
I wonder if you've ever come across the Beroeans site? So far I've only browsed, just like I browse your website,  but it's obvious the people there especially Eric Wilson aka Meleti Vivlon (the person who set it up. 40 years ex elder) are roving about the Bible on the same level as you and your group. Meleti as he appears to prefer to be called, also has a YouTube channel. There's also a guy on YouTube whose channel is called isaiah-30v8 I think. He focuses a lot on Isaiah 66:5 and it eventually becomes very difficult to sit through his videos because of the pace and repetition. The measure by measure that he measures out, as he likes to say, is measured out too slow and gets buried under repetition, even at full double speed. I feel bad saying that but I can't not say it, as a warning. Point being that I can see and sense the sincerity of these people in particular and it would be nice if y'all became aware of each other other, if you haven't already. In fact, I really should try to sign up for your blog/forum and do the same for the Beroean's site. The reddit ex JW is immersed in the sea which roils and foams and tosses about, and I guess I will keep trying to throw lifelines but I definitely need the quiet place and true food of the wilderness and beroeans. Take care. (Please ask the father and our lord for satan to loosen his grip on me)."
-  -  -  -  -  -  -

My Response:
[A note about my pen name, before I begin the body of this post:

Thank you for the common courtesy of respecting my privacy, regarding my online name. I don't mind explaining my pen name.
Pearl Doxsey is the name I was born with, before my marriage. "Pearl" is the meaning of my first name. For example, "Caoimhín" is the Celtic form of "Kevin". "Jose" is the Spanish form of "John", but it is "Sean" in Gaelic. Although names change from language to language... they are the same name, because they have the same meaning.
"Doxsey" is my father's family name, and the surname I was given at birth.
My husband previously used his own name, but then we were accused of hiding the fact that he was my husband, due to having different last names. 

Rather than me changing my well established online name or adding a new one (and be accused of covertly working as two people), he took my last name, in order to be upfront about our marriage, and not stumble anyone. 

When my mother passed away, I provided to some who were closer online associates, my mother's online obituary. Since she naturally had the same name Doxsey, (my maiden name) I was then accused of looking for sympathy by lying about her death, because of my husband having the same name. They reasoned and assumed that she could not be my mother, if my last name was my married (and husband's) last name. I guess you just can't please everyone. Some people's singular goal, is to slander and accuse... usually because they hate the truth, and those who present it. They should be more concerned with their standing with God, as they demonstrate before His face, their petty hatred (Matt.22:11-13; Col.3:14-15).]

-  -  -  -  -  -  -

Yes, 

I have known those you mention in your letter, and others, for many years.

Many online activists, speak with great confidence about their own reasoning, opinion, and assertions. They draw followers, who are swayed by such reasoning. Is not the world full of so-called knowledge? If we are wise, we consider God as wiser than men. Jesus is clear about who it is that conveys God's wisdom to the world (Matt.5:14-15; Rev.1:20; Phil.2:15; Dan.12:3). God has always conveyed His message, through His prophets and priests (Amos 3:7; Mal.2:7). His primary messenger, is Jesus Christ (Rev.3:14; John 8:28; 6:66-69). Jesus gives us clear advice, as do his apostles, about who it is that provides a truthful source of learning. I would urge you to give priority, to considering the scriptures in the following link:

https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2012/05/where-is-true-religion.html

After you have read it, please consider, that I don't think Meleti Vivlon / Eric Wilson claims to be an anointed priest of God. (Mal.2:7; Rev.5:10;  1Cor. 4:1)

Robert King is not anointed (he claims to be, but does not fulfill the standard)...

When asked about his anointing experience; he expresses the source of his confidence, as being his desire to read the writings of the prophets. When a priest or king in Israel was chosen and anointed by God, that person went through an anointing. His position was not established by a desire to read. He also fails the test of Deut.18:20-22 as regards his assertion that he is a prophet/watchman. He foretold that the new World Headquarters of the "Watchtower", would never be completed.

Perimeno, also claims to be anointed, but his anointing story also, does not fulfill the Bible's standard of authenticity. 

He also teaches his followers to have patience, and remain inside the Beast, despite Jesus' own command to flee (Matt.24:15-16; Mark 13:14; Rev.18:4; Luke 17:28-30,31-32; 21:21-22). 

https://pearl-perimeno.blogspot.com

He believes JWs to be God's people, which is easily proven false, by Isa.43:10,21;  1Pet. 2:9-10 and many other scriptures.

https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2016/01/who-become-gods-people.html

https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2014/04/who-are-yhwhs-witnesses.html

https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2012/04/segment-from-letter-regarding-jehovahs.html

Abe/ablebodiedman/(Isaiah-30v8), also claims to be anointed, though I do not know his story of that experience. I do not know if he was genuinely anointed or not, but I do know that he is now guided by his own overconfident thinking, rather than spirit, or a submission to the guidance of scripture. Like a vain man in front of a mirror, he is so enamored with his own "profound" conceptualizing, that he can't break free to consider anything outside himself. He has an exaggerated sense of his own wisdom. As a result, he denies the Body of Christ, and the gifts given to the other Body members for his building up (Eph.4:2-4,11-13,14-16; Rom.12:4-5). As a result, we consistently see from him... drawn out re-hashing of his own thoughts, and scriptures that point to his personal vindication... both of which prevent his growth within the Body of Christ (1Cor. 12:7,11,15-16,17-18,19-20,21,27-29). 

https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2013/07/discerning-body-god-of-order.html

Like the "ten kings" who rule "one hour" with the Beast (Rev.17:12); he is in danger of returning to the organization, to bask in both the "Watchtower's" contrition, and the esteem from its condemned rebels (Rev.19:20; 20:10; 13:8; 20:15; 16:2; 14:9-11). 
(https://pearl-kingsofearth.blogspot.com)
Isa.66:5 (and Hosea 1:10) which is the verse of his obsession, is not speaking of Kingdom Halls, but rather, the place where speech originates, which is inside the heart (Luke 6:45; Matt.15:18-19).

I have repeatedly sent him the clear direction of scripture, in order for him to consider how it can enhance his perspective and adjust his practices. He rejects the direction of scripture, in favor of his own course. A genuine and faithful messenger of God, hears, listens, and heeds God's Words (John 8:47; Ps.119:105).

To substantiate with one example.... 

he insists on partaking alone. His reasoning, is from Rev.3:20. 

Is this referring to the memorial emblems, and therefore a Bible contradiction to 1Cor. 11:33? 

No. Jesus was referring to the meaning of John 6:63; 17:3 and Rev.2:17 (Luke 10:22). Jesus will share the opening of the scroll/marriage feast with any servant, who is found, awake. 

***(Mark 13:34; Luke 12:37,36; Rev.3:20; 2:17; John 6:58,51,55; Rev.19:9; John 6:63; Rev.22:17)*** --  (Rev.5:2,5; Dan.7:13; Rev.5:7; John 15:15; 16:15; 14:26)
https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2013/10/unless-you-eat-my-flesh.html
https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2017/04/symbolic-flesh-and-blood-invited-and.html

(https://pearl-newscrolls.blogspot.com)

1Cor.11:33 reads;  "33 Therefore, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another."

Even the context of that verse makes clear, that partakers are to gather for the memorial. Why did the apostle Paul, say this? Why did they need to "wait for one another" and "come together", if not to partake as a unified body? 

1Cor.12 goes into detail, about how closely the members of the Body of Christ are to work together and care for each other. "Abe" insists on feeling too superior to even consider working toward a relationship with other anointed. When he fails to discern the Body of Christ (1Cor.11:29), he has lost union with it's Head (Col.2:19). He also, like Perimeno, considers the blasphemous "Watchtower" Beast, to be the materialization of Christ's kingdom, arrived. That is scripturally wrong on so many levels, but you will see that from scripture, if you continue to study. 

There are many others also, who deem themselves the genuine messengers of God. But it matters not what we may think of ourselves, or how reasonable or profound our human message may seem to be. What matters is who God Himself has really chosen, cleansed, and qualified, to trumpet His message in this time of the End. It is not that the vessel is anything of itself. Their import is only in the message they are assigned to relate, and it's Origin (Luke 17:10;  2Cor. 4:7). But it is crucial for those seeking the "proper food at the proper time", to identify the genuine and faithful. 

There are many in the wilderness that are legitimately attacking the "Watchtower". But that is not God's standard for His genuine prophets. Even the Beast and ten kings, develop a hatred for the harlot leadership (Rev.17:16; 19:17-18).

Of course it seems that all these previous false christs and false apostles (Matt.24:24-25), are lead by scripture, and teach accordingly (2Cor. 11:3-4,12-15; Rev.2:9; Rom.2:28-29; Acts 5:36). But didn't the "Watchtower" also seem to be so? Satan and his agents, often mix a concoction of truth and lies (Rev.8:10-11). Pure and obvious deception would not be an effective bait. Some truth must be used, in order to ensnare if possible, even the elect (Matt.24:24-25).

Please be cautious, because we are told that we cannot partake of both the deceptive table of demons, and at the same time, benefit from the table of the Lord (1Cor. 10:21). 

In order for our house of faith to be built on solid rock (Matt.7:24-27); we must identify those faithful, genuinely assigned by Jesus to feed his household (Luke 12:42)... those who base all their teaching and example of behavior, on the words of God and Christ. 

"By their fruit you will recognize them" (Matt.7:20). 
(1Cor. 11:18-19; Matt.24:6; Eph.5:11; Mal.3:18)

( https://pearl-finetrees.blogspot.com )

Those who impersonate God's priests, by replacing them in their position to teach (Mal.2:7), are actually a fulfillment of the "disgusting thing, standing in the holy place/standing where it does not belong" (Matt.24:15; Mark 13:14). The "holy place", is God's Temple priesthood (1Pet. 2:5;  1Cor. 3:17). Those who subjugate, trample down, and usurp God's priests, will soon face Christ (2Thess. 2:3-4,8). 
https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2015/01/who-are-gods.html
Why is there an accounting for their actions? 
(2Cor. 11:15;  1Cor. 11:19; Matt.24:6;  2Chron. 16:9; Dan.9:26; Mark 13:14)
(https://pearl-sign.blogspot.com)
They compete with, criticize, and in some cases publicly condemn, those sanctioned by Christ to feed his sheep. In their proud ignorance, they foment confusion and resist the work of God's spirit, making the work of God's messengers, so much more difficult to do... and make it more difficult for those searching, to find and recognize the genuine, amid the confusion.
https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2015/02/abomination-causing-desolation.html

Of course, it is totally up to you, what spiritual food you choose to eat, and what standard in that regard, guides you. I do hope that your choice is guided by Christ and God, who clearly identify their genuine and faithful anointed priests, as well as their qualifications 
(John 15:16; Mal.2:7; Rev.5:9-10;  1Cor. 4:1; Luke 12:42; Rev.11:3-5; Jer.5:14). 
Pray for divine guidance in this.

https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2016/01/is-leaving-city-enough.html

Regarding our prayer for your endurance. Paula and I do pray for the redemption and salvation of God's elect, and their endurance through this great tribulation.
https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2015/06/the-greatest-tribulation-why.html
Each of us can learn from the example of Jesus, in how to cope with such torture (Heb.4:15). In the account of his own testing by Satan (Matt.4:1-11; Luke 4:1-13), Jesus repeatedly resorted to the guidance of the Word of God, found in the scriptures. If we do the same, we will not be overcome. We will find the path to victory (1John 2:13-14). 

If you want to share the nature of your trials, perhaps I can assist you in finding the scriptures that will help you.

Thank you again for reaching out to me.

Love in Christ,

Pearl

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"Legal" Marriage -- Who judges? / Who declares, "I am the Christ"?

I have finally gotten to answer a question about marriage, and thought I would post it here.

Hi,
I am pregnant out of wedlock and my partners Mother (who is Jehovah Witness) will not attend my Baby Shower. She said she would attend if her son and I were married, but since we are not it is against her religion to attend. Is this true??

REPLY:


Dear Xxxx,
I could answer your question with one word; but if I did, I would feel that I neglected giving you the full picture you deserve. If you decide to speak to your partner's mother over this issue, I would also like to prepare you well.
I hope you don't mind me being thorough. According to your question above, I see the following issues and questions as being raised...

Is it really against the religion of "Jehovah's witnesses" to attend a baby shower, if the parents of said child are not legally married?
Are you really married in the eyes of God?
Is your partner's mother really acting as a Christian, as she believes?
Is her decision really in imitation of Christ's example?
Does your baby deserve to be treated according to YOUR perceived "sins"?
Does a marriage certificate provided by the government, really constitute marriage?
Does attendance at your baby shower break God's law, or warrant God's disapproval?

I will take them one at a time.

QUESTION 1:
Is it really against the religion of "Jehovah's witnesses" to attend a baby shower, if the parents of said child are not legally married?

ANSWER 1:
Simply stated, yes. Please let me help you to understand why.
The child is viewed as a product of "fornication". To attend a celebration of such a conception, is viewed as condoning and approving of the means by which that child has come into existence. Therefore, to avoid being seen as approving of "fornication", "Jehovah's Witnesses" will decline attending a celebration of a perceived illegitimacy.

Yet, as you might reason, such a belief is unfounded if this view is incorrect. This is what I hope to demonstrate by answering by means of the Bible (the very guide which your partner's mother claims to follow), the rest of those questions.

QUESTION 2:
Are you really married in the eyes of God?

ANSWER 2:
In the Bible, Jesus told us God's definition of Marriage, and how it is made "official".
We find his words, at Matt.19:4,5,6. It reads:
Jesus answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”

Jesus tells us what constitutes marriage "from the beginning". In the beginning, Adam and Eve did not have a marriage certificate, but rather, they became "one flesh", and were "joined together" by God. Can you see this clearly?

In fact, as regards certificates given by officials, in Matt.19:3,7,9; Jesus compares "lawful" "certificates" to God's Laws, and declares that the laws of men (for marriage and divorce), are invalid (see also Matt.5:31,32).

So then, did you notice when GOD considers two people husband and wife?
According to God's Son Jesus Christ; it is when they leave their previous household and live together, and have sex (become one flesh). These acts IN GOD'S EYES, constitute marriage.

However, there is great gravity in Jesus' last words...
"Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate."

This means that once these two things occur, with or without a marriage certificate; the partners are to regard the union as life-long, without the option of separation (except on the grounds of adultery/fornication Matt.5:32; 19:9).

Because of the slack attitude which has developed in society, "living together" is viewed as independent of a lifelong commitment. Does this decline of society, away from God's standard, change God's Laws on marriage? Are Jesus' words then nullified?
No.
Just because society views "becoming one flesh" as separate from marriage, Jesus has taught us God's unchangeable view.

If you are living in the same home with your partner, and are "one flesh" with him...
you are viewed as married in God's eyes, and are bound to your partner for life as married.
This carries infinitely greater force than a man-made certificate, according to the words of Jesus Christ.

QUESTION 3:
Is your partner's mother really acting as a Christian, as she believes?

ANSWER:
First of all, I am sure both you and your partner already know his mother's view of your so called "unlawful" union. Were she to attend the baby shower, it would not insinuate to you, that she changed her view of your relationship. So, this basis for not attending, is not valid.

Surely your partner's mother knows that you have not been thoroughly educated in the Bible and it's requirements for Christians. Yet, she imposes her imagined Christian standards onto you, along with the consequences of transgressing them.
Was this truly the example Jesus Christ set for his disciples?

QUESTION 4:
Is her decision really in imitation of Christ's example?

ANSWER:

Notice Mark2:15,16,17
 "Now it happened, as Jesus was dining in Levi’s house, that many tax collectors and sinners also sat together with Jesus and His disciples; for there were many, and they followed Him. And when the scribes and Pharisees saw Him eating with the tax collectors and sinners, they said to His disciples, “How is it that He eats and drinks with tax collectors and sinners?”
When Jesus heard it, He said to them, “Those who are well have no need of a physician, but those who are sick. I did not come to call the righteous, but sinners, to repentance.”

So Xxxx...you tell me...
Is your partner's mother imitating the attitude of Jesus, or the attitude of the "scribes and Pharisees"? I do not judge you as a sinner, but even if your partner's mother does...how should she treat you?

Also under this question, is the similar judging your partner's mother is forming toward your unborn child. This brings us to the next question...

QUESTION 5:
Does your baby deserve to be treated according to YOUR perceived "sins"?

ANSWER:
In the Bible, there is a story of a man called Jephthah. He enjoyed a very close relationship with God. God richly blessed this man, because Jephthah was favored and cherished by God. This man, was the son of a prostitute. If you would like to read about him, you can find his story in the Bible, in the book of Judges, chapter 11. Although Jephthah's brothers of the same father treated him as inferior, unclean, and unworthy to be among them; God saw things very differently.
Even if you were a sinner, God does not punish children for their parent's sins
(see Eze.18:1,2,3,4,9,14,17,18,19,20; Jer.31:29,30).
Your partner's mother is not more righteous than God, is she?

QUESTION 6:
Does a marriage certificate provided by the government, really constitute marriage?

ANSWER:
We have already shown through Jesus' own words, what God considers marriage.
But let's look at the view of your partner's mother (and of "Jehovah's Witnesses" in general).
One of the reasons "Jehovah's witnesses" claim that a marriage license is necessary to officiate a union, is the claim that the government requires it in order to recognize the marriage.
This is untrue.
The government does not require that relationships be legally registered (unless you are seeking certain benefits). Also, the government recognizes marriages that have not been so registered. These marriages are called "common-law"....meaning that the demonstrated applicable law, is self-evident. This is in harmony with what Jesus claimed God's recognition of marriage is.

QUESTION 7:
Does attendance at your baby shower break God's law, or warrant God's disapproval?

ANSWER:
Jesus once said:
"A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another; as I have loved you, that you also love one another. By this all will know that you are My disciples, if you have love for one another.” (John13:34,35)
The foremost trait of True Christians, is love.
We can find the other requirements of God, at Micah6:8, which reads:

"God has shown you, O man, what is good;
And what does the Lord require of you?
But to do justly,
To love mercy,
And to walk humbly with your God?"

Justice, mercy, humility. This is what pleases God.
Humility... in what way?
Here is the kind of humility Jesus taught us to display, when we are faced with the sins of others....

John8:2-12
"Now early in the morning Jesus came again into the temple, and all the people came to Him; and He sat down and taught them. Then the scribes and Pharisees brought to Him a woman caught in adultery. And when they had set her in the midst, they said to Him, “Teacher, this woman was caught in adultery, in the very act. Now Moses, in the law, commanded us that such should be stoned. But what do You say?” This they said, testing Him, that they might have something of which to accuse Him. But Jesus stooped down and wrote on the ground with His finger, as though He did not hear.
So when they continued asking Him, He raised Himself up and said to them, “He who is without sin among you, let him throw a stone at her first.” And again He stooped down and wrote on the ground. Then those who heard it, being convicted by their conscience, went out one by one, beginning with the oldest even to the last. And Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst. When Jesus had raised Himself up and saw no one but the woman, He said to her, “Woman, where are those accusers of yours? Has no one condemned you?”
She said, “No one, Lord.”
And Jesus said to her, “Neither do I condemn you; go and sin no more.”
Then Jesus spoke to them again, saying, “I am the light of the world. He who follows Me shall not walk in darkness, but have the light of life.”

(2Cor.5:19; John3:17; Matt.5:45; Luke6:35; Acts14:16,17)

Xxxxx...If we are not humble in our walking with God,
we are given this warning....
Matt.7:1,2
“Judge not, that you be not judged. For with what judgment you judge, you will be judged; and with the measure you use, it will be measured back to you."

I am certain that your partner's mother is not without her own sins.
For, the Bible tells us;
"All sin and fall short of the glory of God". (Rom.3:23)

Jesus told us that within the two greatest commands of God, there is an obligation to love our neighbor (Matt.22:38,39,40). When asked to specify the identity of who we should display this love to...Jesus answered by giving an illustration (Luke10:27,28,29,30). If you would like to read his reply, it is this: Luke 10:30,31,32,33,34,35,36,37. Can you discern that we must consider as neighbor (and as those to whom we should show love), even those who are not the same religion as we are? Jews normally disdained Samaritans, and thought them as beneath themselves in a spiritual sense...which was true (John4:22). Yet Jesus made clear, that our very life (Luke10:25,27,28) and the approval of God (Luke10:25; Matt.22:40),
rests upon practicing a proactive and humble love toward all (Matt.5:43,44,45,46,47,48; Luke5:32; Micah6:8)...
without regard to what we may think of them, or their spiritual standing as compared to us
(Luke10:29,36,37; Matt.5:7; Luke18:9,10,11,12,13,14).
The Jews who passed by the injured man, did not obey God's command to love neighbor.
The Samaritan, did. Who then, receives life from God?
Yes, humble love is required, no matter how spiritually superior we esteem ourselves to be.
Your mother-in-law fulfills the commands of men...not of God (Matt.15:9).
Christ's command is to love everyone (John13:34; 15:12; Matt.5:46,47,44) in imitation of him (John3:17; 1Pet.2:12; Matt.5:42; 1Tim.6:18).

Thank you for your question, Xxxxx. I wish the best for your new family. May you continue to learn about the love and mercy of God, and enjoy his favor and blessing forever. If there is any other way I can help you, please ask.

Love,
Pearl

ADDITION:

When I thought about all this....

every time the "witnesses" tell someone to leave the person they are living with, (because they do not have a marriage license)

they are "putting apart" that which God has already joined together...all because they do not realize the truth of what Jesus said.

Sometimes an unbelieving mate is willing to stay together for life, but unwilling to legalize the union. "Witnesses" pry such a union apart. In doing so, they violate God's laws of Marriage.

I have seen "divorced" couples who later made up, disfellowshipped because they did not re-marry legally first. The Bible even tells such separated ones, that they should "make up" and rejoin (1Cor.7:10,11). Yet the "witnesses" discipline such ones, due to an unscriptural view of the "legalities" instituted by men. 

These couples are actually being punished and shamed, for doing what is right in God's eyes.

A "sister" in my local congregation was with her husband for over 30 years. They had a son together. While she was studying, she was told that unless she left her husband, she could not be baptized. Her husband did not want to legalize the union. This poor woman left her husband in order to be baptized.

To compel a person to do this by tyrannical decree, violates 1Cor.7:13, which reads:
"Also, if any woman has an unbelieving husband and he is willing to live with her, she must not leave her husband."
And, Matt.19:6...
"They are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God  has joined together, let no one separate.”
Yet the leaders of "J.W.'s" are so blinded by their own sense of self-righteousness...so enamored with their own sense of rectitude...they have no room to yield to God's (Matt.6:33; Prov.20:9,10,11; 25:16; Ec.7:16; Rom.12:3).

At the root of these misconceptions, is a trust in men, their authority, and their institutions, as being above the Bible's.

Yet, in the case of "Jehovah's Witnesses", should this inclination surprise us? 

Within the organization men are served, followed, and obeyed, above and beyond the scriptures.

Jesus once said, "Give to Caesar what belongs to Caesar, but give to God what belongs to God." (Matt.22:21)

Does authority over marriage belong to

Caesar (secular government), or God?

Jesus' words make the answer clear:

"Therefore what God  has joined together, let no one separate." (Mark10:9)

Marriage belongs to God,

and His authority over it, should be recognized, 

and given to Him.

Since the leadership of "J.W.'s" fails to recognize this;

...what are the implications for all those who are in subjection to that leadership? (Matt.5:20; 15:14)

Jesus told his Chosen brothers...

"Be careful," Jesus said to them. "Be on your guard against the yeast of the Pharisees and Sadducees." (Matt.16:6)

What did this "yeast" include?

Verse 12 tells us...

"Then they understood that He did not say to beware of the yeast of bread, but of the teaching of the Pharisees and Sadducees." (Matt.16:12)
That yeast also includes pride and hypocrisy. They claim to listen to God's Word, but their doctrines prove otherwise (Luke12:1; Matt.15:8).
"Jehovah's Witnesses" have forgotten, that their salvation rests, not upon their self-righteous condemnation of others, but rather,
upon their ability to humbly forgive (Matt.7:2; Ec.7:16; Matt.6:14,15; 1John1:8; Luke15:7,10; 18:11,12,13,14).

What was wrong with teachings that defy what Christ established regarding marriage and God's right to officiate over it?

Jesus exposed their error, when he said:
"They worship me in vain; their teachings are merely human rules."..."Thus you nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition." (Matt.15:9,6)

Jesus told his own Chosen that they themselves had to beware of doing these very things. (1Cor.5:7; Luke5:38)

Do we see professed anointed leaders today, nullifying God's Word for the sake of secular tradition?

Have they ignored Christ's warning about imitating the hypocrisy of the previous leaders of God's Nation? 

(Luke12:1; Mark7:6,7)

God's Word clearly identifies what marriage is, and who it is that officiates over and establishes it.

Has His Word been "nullified" by religious leaders,

who imitate the yeast of the Pharisees and Sadducees?

If you recognize this, then also grasp what this implies for God's Nation today, being guided by the present "steward" (Eze.14:10; 1John4:1; John7:18,17; 8:47)....

Jesus told those to be the last  remnant of his Chosen brothers...

"See to it  that no one misleads you . For many will come in My name, saying, 'I am the Christ,' and will mislead many." (Matt.24:4,5,24,25) (Mark13:21)

"Christ":

Christ is the English term for the Greek Χριστός (Khristós) meaning "the anointed". 

When the Hebrew scriptures were translated into a Greek version called the Septuagint; Khristós was used to translate the Hebrew מָשִׁיחַ (Mašíaḥ,) (Messiah), meaning "[one who is] anointed with holy anointing oil."

Christos is the Greek translation of the Hebrew word Mashiach (now customarily rendered in English as "Messiah"), which means "one who is anointed." 

The faithful slaves of Christ's body, would be included as Christs (Zech.4:14; 2Cor.1:21; 1John2:20,27), or, Messiahs.

These can prove faithful and true "wheat", or unfaithful and false "weeds".

(http://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2014/04/wheat-and-weed-seeds-grow-up-and-mature.html)

For us to understand the prophecy at Matt.24:5, we need to understand a modern translation of this foretold claim.

To claim to be the "Christ", is by definition, also to

claim to be the faithful and true "anointed" and Chosen of God. 
("Who claims, 'I am the Christ'?")

This is the modern equivalent of claiming to be the anointed "faithful and discreet slave" that Jesus referred to at Matt.24:45. If someone asserts and promotes this exact claim about themselves; they fulfill this prophecy. Jesus tells us not to believe them (Mark13:21; 1John4:1).

Does this mean that such a slave does not exist?

No. 

Such a slave is  appointed by Christ, to provide spiritual provisions (Luke12:42; Matt.7:17,19; John15:8). But the true faithful anointed, would not declare themselves to be such (Luke17:10), because they realize such an identity is for their master alone to bestow (Matt.25:23). They would not dare assume their approved standing and it's reward, prematurely (1Cor.10:12; Isa.47:8,9,7; Rev.18:7,8; Luke12:19,20,21) (Matt.25:23; Rev.22:12; 2Thess.1:7) (Matt.16:27; 1Cor.11:26) (Matt.24:13; Rev.3:11; 2:25; Dan.11:35).

Yet Jesus asks us all  to contemplate his question... "Who really  is?" (Matt.24:45)

It would obviously not  be the ones touting the claim...

             (and enforcing it with persecution by an army of Gentile "elders" 

              -Zech4:6,14; Jer.17:5; Luke12:45; Rev.9:3; 13:15) 

...but rather, the ones really providing the proper food (scriptural truth) at the proper time (alert and awake as to the hour of need, holding fast their testimony of Jesus (Matt.24:45,46; Luke12:37,36,35; Matt.5:14; Rev.12:17). 

  The FDS would also be those who provide the spiritual food according to the method  Jesus indicated.

What method is that?

Rather than being clearly announced, extolled, and possessing an established place (Matt.24:23; Luke21:8; Matt.24:26);

as Christ's representatives (2Cor.5:20; 13:3; Rom.15:17,18; Luke12:3; Matt.10:27,20), they would simply be "flashing" "light" around the globe (Matt.24:26,27,28; 5:14; John8:12). 

"Eagles" would have to use their keen discernment to search out these "slain ones"/"carcass" (Mark8:35; Rev.6:9,11; 12:11; Matt.24:28; Rev.12:14,6; 11:3,8). 

They would be recognized by their true/fine fruit....not by a menacing self-proclamation. (Matt.7:20; Mal.3:18)

The true "light"/"food" would be sourced in the true vine (John15:4,5), and this light of truth would be a manifestation of Christ himself, unified with his faithful cloud (John16:13,14; 14:26; Rev.11:3; Matt.10:27; Luke12:12; 21:15; Mark13:26; Heb.12:1; Matt.25:31; Heb.2:5,16).

That end-time light/fruit of Christ through his faithful, would contain some specific elements, including:

---the exposing of the "Man of Lawlessness" (Eph.5:11; 2Thess.2:8; Rev.3:9) by these last anointed (Rev.11:5; Jer.5:14; Isa.24:6; 1Cor.3:13; 4:5); 

---previous awakening and repentance by the faithful (Rev.3:19; 11:3; Joel1:13; Luke21:36; Mal.3:2,3; Micah7:9; Rev.3:2,17; Matt.25:5,6,7; Eph.5:14; Rev.3:18; Mal.3:3);

---condemnation of the apostate empire
(Rev.8:8; Zech.4:7; Mark11:23; Rev.18:21; 2:26,27; 17:14; 19:11,14,8) 
through a war between truth and lies 
(1Tim.4:1; Rev.16:13,14,15,16; 2Cor.10:4,5; Rom.12:2,1; 2Cor.6:7; 10:4; Jer.1:10; 2Cor.10:8; 13:10; 10:5) (Rev.12:7; 19:11,14; 17:14; 12:10-11)

---and a symbolic "death" for truth's sake (Rev.6:9,11; 11:7; 12:11; 20:4)].

The genuine faithful anointed slaves of God, do not need to blow a trumpet to announce who they are, or draw people to where they are located. They simply need to obey the Master, by producing fruit to feed his sheep.
Jesus Christ and all the genuine and sealed Chosen "Christs" (anointed) of Jesus' "Body",

would simply be "One" with the essence of the light they shine, as the vessels of it 
(John14:17; 1Thess.5:5; 2Cor.4:7; Luke1:78; 2Pet.1:19; Rev.22:16; 2Cor.4:6; Rev.2:27,28,29). 

The Christ/anointed who truly possess this holy oil of God's spirit, would be manifested by shining true light, devoid of an established religious affiliation, hierarchy, spiritual commerce, and notoriety...

They would not become manifested by claims, prominence, stature, physical holdings, worldly acclaim and accomplishments, honor by men, nor by their impressive surroundings and established location.  
(Luke 9:58; 1John 2:16,15; Hebrews 10:34; Rev. 2:9; Matt.6:19; Luke 12:20; Rev.18:14,19)
(1Cor.4:13; 1:25,27,28,29; Heb.13:13)
(Matt.24:1,2; John4:21,23 --http://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2013/01/imagine-yourself-back-in-first-century.html)

When we see these impressive physical things, Jesus tells us, "Do not believe it!"...

"For as lightening comes from eastern parts, and shines over to western parts; So the presence of the Son of Man will be". 

...And so the presence of the genuine Anointed "Sons of Oil" will also be (Zech.4:14; Rev.11:4; Matt.10:40) as they serve him (Col.3:24; John1:51; Rom.8:9; 2Cor.5:17). 

They are together with Christ, in spirit (1Cor.6:17; Matt.28:20) with their appearing bridegroom (John17:23,24; 14:20; 15:5; 6:56; Matt.25:6,10,13; 2Cor.11:2; Eph.5:27; John14:3; 12:26; 2Thess.1:7,10)(Isa.58:10; Ps.37:6; 97:11; Isa.58:10; 1Cor.3:13) 
and enter the marriage feast with him, 
along with all those who wish to attend and partake of the spiritual provisions 
[Matt.22:2,8,9,10; 
        (Dan.7:13; Rev.5:1,5,7; John15:15;
          Rev.1:1; Matt.10:27; John21:17; 
          Matt.5:14; 1Cor.4:1; John7:38)
Rev.19:9; 22:17; 5:5; 10:2,7,8,11; 20:12; Rev.3:20).

"Who really is the faithful 

and wise slaves ("Christs"/anointed)?"? (Matt.24:45)

"By their fruits you will  recognize them."...both the fine,

 and the rotten (Matt.7:20; Mal.3:18).

(pearl-finetrees.blogspot.com)

(pearl-faithfulslave.blogspot.com)

Jesus identified two options before his Chosen slaves....

faithful/wise, and wicked/abusive/drunk/asleep.

Our lives depend upon identifying and distinguishing between the two, and whose provisions we will accept and obey. 

(Rom.6:16; 2Cor.13:3; 4:1,2; 1Cor.4:1,2; 1John4:1; 1Thess.5:21; Mark 13:37; Matt.7:15,20,24,26; Rev.13:11,8)

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The Original Sin

A QUESTION:

Good day sister D
I just read something interesting about why Satan succeeded in deceiving Eve. 

1. In your view why did Satan succeed in deceiving Eve and not Adam (if He did try to deceive him)

2. What does it mean to know "good and evil"?

3. Why didn't they realize that they were naked before they ate the fruit?

Lastly can you please provide me with the link about what the trees in Genesis represent (you wrote that a couple of months ago)

Many thanks
Modise
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MY REPLY:

Dear Modise,

Eph.5:8-12 reads:
"For you were once darkness, but now you are light in the Lord. Live as children of light (for the fruit of the light consists in all goodness, righteousness and truth) and find out what pleases the Lord. Have nothing to do with the fruitless deeds of darkness, but rather expose them. 12 It is shameful even to mention what the disobedient do in secret."

The reason I raise this scripture, is because it relates to the details of Adam and Eve's sin.
How so?

"The fruit of light consists in all goodness, righteousness and truth" (Eph.5:9).
Keep in mind that this is not speaking of literal fruit, but of teaching/words (Matt.12:33,34,35,36,37; 7:20; Heb.13:15)
pearl-finetrees.blogspot.com
The acceptable "fruit of light" is the "truth", and is only "goodness". It consists in "all righteousness", never guiding one into wrong thoughts or behavior. 

Such "light" results in life, eternally (John 1:1,4; 8:12; 12:46; Prov.11:30; 10:11; 3:13,18). 
The source of this "fruit of light", is the "Tree of Life", the "Word". 
All it's wise "fruit", is "goodness".

What about the other "tree"? The "tree of knowledge" was of both good AND BAD (Gen.3:22). 
In knowing both, a comparison can be made, and a knowledge of how these differ from each other, is gained. When one acts upon evil information, innocence is gone.

The Bible reveals that Satan's mouth, also bears "fruit"/teachings (Rev.16:13; 12:15; Col.2:8;  2Cor.11:3;  1Tim.6:20,21; Gen.3:4,5; Rev.2:24; James 3:15). Just as Jesus is "the way", and his teachings are the road to life; Satan's deceptions are the road which leads to destruction (2Thess.2:9,10; Matt.7:13; Rev.12:9). All of Satan's teachings/"fruit" are lies, darkness, error/sin, and they lead to death (John 8:44; Heb.2:14; James 1:15). To take in knowledge of such evil teachings, is to be deceived. Eve herself obtained this falsely-called knowledge (Gen.3:13;  1Tim.6:20;  2Cor.11:14) which resulted in her death (Rom.5:12; Gen.2:17).

With that introduction accomplished, I will try to answer each of your questions.

1. My view is worthless, but I will forward for your consideration some scriptural observations.
Why was Eve deceived, but not Adam (Gen.3:13;  1Tim.2:14;  2Cor.11:3)?  The only reasonable way to discover this, is to examine what differences existed between Adam and Eve. Only one of those differences can account for a difference in response to Satan's beguile. 

Adam was directly warned by God (Gen.2:16,17). Adam alone named all the creatures that God brought before him (Gen.2:19). To "name" something, reflects your authority to determine it's use and purpose 
(Rev.7:3; 14:1; 2:17; Isa.62:2; Rev.3:12; Isa.1:26; 56:5). Adam's kingdom over the planet and all life on it, was bestowed before Eve appeared (Gen.1:26,28). Eve was for Adam, not Adam for Eve (Gen.2:18,22;  1Cor.11:7,8,9). This "Law" is consistent, even within the spiritual symbolism of "women" (Gal.4:24;  2Cor.11:2; Rev.22:17; Eph.5:23,24).

 We are told that previous to the act of sin, there is temptation (James 1:14,15,16; Gen.4:6,7). What would have tempted Eve, and not so much Adam? The things Satan offered Eve hold a clue for us.

 Satan first said, "Did God really say, ‘You must not eat from any tree in the garden'?"
  "Did God really say"
  Here Satan highlighted, that Eve likely received this warning second-hand. Satan introduced the idea, that perhaps she should not believe all she hears from her husband...Perhaps he is just trying to be overly controlling, exerting a unfounded superiority, dominance, and arrogance. 
How did Eve feel about being a lesser one? Satan would bring this issue out on the table for exploitation. After all, why didn't God tell her directly also? Why was she "out of the loop"? Would she feel "passed over", perhaps humiliated?

  Next Satan promotes the idea, that indeed she has been made a fool by Adam...
"You will not certainly die,” the serpent said to the woman." (Gen.3:4).
Now the question was raised in Eve's mind....
Why would God and Adam lie to Eve about the Tree of Knowledge"? 

Perhaps to foment increasing jealousy of the superiority of both God and Adam, Satan lies about the purported motive for keeping Eve in ignorance...
“For God knows that when you eat from it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil.”

Adam did not have the same motive to be jealous. God was generous to Adam, giving him everything. This included a warning to avoid Satan and his lies. God could read Satan's motives, even before Satan sinned.
Eve enjoyed all the same blessings but one...To be first and primary.
According to Satan...If Eve bucked her imposed restriction...she could take first place in something ahead of Adam....
"knowing good and evil" (Gen.3:6).

1Tim.2:14 tells us that the man was not deceived, but Eve was, and she sinned first. According to scripture, this occurred because she acted upon a wrong desire (James 1:14,15), which likely resulted from her occupying a different role than Adam (1Cor.11:7,8,9). These roles are not exchangeable (Deut.22:5). Although Eve's divine role was perfect for her innate needs and happiness; I suspect that Satan was able to exploit this difference.

Another worthy consideration is a look at what the "fruit"/teaching/lie of Satan actually was. What wicked guidance was it, and what wicked deed did it direct?
I believe this brings us to your second and third questions...
"What does it mean to know 'good and evil'?"
"Why didn't they realize that they were naked before they ate the fruit?"

2.&3. While innocent, we do not "know" shame and guilt (Titus 1:15). To feel shame and guilt, is to "know evil" and it's contrast with "good". It occurs after sin.

This is consistent with your third question. Adam and Eve felt no shame in their nakedness, before their sinning. Although sexually active, they felt guiltless (Gen.2:24,25).
  Interestingly, after their sin (into which they were guided by Satan's counsel), they each felt both shame and guilt at their deviance from God's guidance (Gen.3:7,10,11).
  Whatever sin Satan's lie drove Eve to commit, in defiance of a natural, innocent, and pure sexuality;
she shared it with Adam. Both were tempted into being lead by Satan's guidance, rather than remain innocent of such "evil" corruption. That sin is associated with an awareness of being ashamed of their sexuality (Gen.2:24,25; 3:7). 
  God gave Eve to Adam as a companion, helper, and mate. This was to be a romantic and sexual relationship. This was clear to Adam, and he knew it was clear to God. Yet before sin, this purpose carried with it, no compromise of integrity (Gen.2:22,23,24,25), nor feelings of guilt or shame.

I personally feel that my personal deduction about the nature of the first sin, gains weight, when we see Adam's response...
 "He answered, “I heard you in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked; so I hid.” 
And God said, “Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten from the tree that I commanded you not to eat from?” The man said, “The woman you put here with me —she gave me some fruit from the tree, and I ate it." (Gen.3:10,11,12).
Adam pointed back to God's gift of a wife, and that he merely indulged in what God gave him...
trying to diminish the fact that his actions were directed by the teachings/"fruit", of the forbidden tree.

The Bible does not offer precise details of why Adam and Eve became ashamed of their sexuality following guidance by Satan. I believe this brings us back to Eph.5:12...
"It is shameful even to mention what the disobedient do in secret."
God's clean Word will leave it to what is necessary.
We are not ignorant of what demons can desire 

(Gen.6:1,2,4; Jude 1:6,7; Rom.1:25,26;  2Pet.2:4,7,10).

Remember the warning the Chosen Ones are given, at 2Cor.11:2,3?
"For I am jealous for you with a godly jealousy; for I betrothed you to one husband, so that to Christ I might present you as a pure virgin. But I am afraid that, as the serpent seduced Eve by his craftiness, your minds will be led astray from the simplicity and purity of devotion to Christ."

Clearly, Paul's concern was to preserve the virginity, chastity and purity of Christ's collective bride.
He warns that it's loss is associated with the same seduction of Eve by Satan.
Of course we know that the virginity Paul is speaking of here, is symbolic (Rev.14:4,5).
Yet it would not be a symbolic loss of sexual cleanness, that would cause Adam and Eve to sew fig leaves together to cover their literal sexual parts.

I will assume you comprehend what my own view is, regarding the original sin, so that I don't have to "mention it" further (Eph.5:12).

Lastly, here is the link you requested. It will provide more scriptures regarding the Bible's symbolic use of "trees" and their "fruit", 
including other uses of the term, "tree of life". Those scriptures aid us in obtaining a deeper and more mature knowledge of Genesis, chapters 1-3.

4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2013/08/two-trees.html

Thank you for your fine question.
If the answer remains wanting, please follow up.
Love in Christ,

Pearl

---------------------------------------------------

PART B

Question:

Thank you for the answer you gave, just wanted to draw your attention to Gen.3:6,7
"She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. 7 Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves".

Why did Eve's eyes not open open up immediately after she ate the fruit but only after Adam ate?
-----------------------------------------

My Reply:

I am going to add in parenthesis, the Hebrew transliteration of certain parts of these verses.
Gen.3:6,7 reads:
"When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some (she is taking from him) and ate it (and she is giving). She also (gave?) some (and she also IS GIVING) to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. 7 Then the eyes of both of them were opened (and·they-are-being-unclosed eyes-of two-of·them), and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves."

The first point is that the Hebrew describes the fruit as coming from Satan, not from the literal tree.
The second point, is that the Hebrew describes Eve as giving something away WHILE she is accepting, rather than how it is translated, "and ate it".
The third point, is that the Hebrew describes the offering of fruit to Adam at the same time that she herself is eating it. It is not originally written in the past tense as commonly translated.

  Yet even if the opening of Eve's eyes did take longer than Adam, this need not be perplexing.
This would indicate that she did not perceive the wrong as quickly as Adam.
This is in perfect harmony with the fact that Eve was deceived, and Adam was not (1Tim.2:14).

The opening of Eve's eyes many not have occurred, until Adam felt his own guilt and shame. It makes sense that he might feel it first, since he knew this was wrong (Eve was deceived). Seeing Adam's shame could certainly remove the ignorance and innocence from Eve's eyes.

Certainly Eve would lose esteem in Adam's regard, when Adam realized the unclean state of his wife before she herself did. She may not have perceived her unclean state, until she saw it reflected in her husband's own disapproving eyes. Remember...at no time was Adam deceived about what Eve had chosen. Eve was deceived.
Even Satan said their eyes are bound to be opened (literally, "in the day of") (Gen.3:5). This indicates an inescapable consequence, but it does not indicate that this had to take place instantly, nor at the same time with Adam and Eve as individuals.
When it states that both their eyes were opened, it does not specify the timing of either, only that this realization took place with both of them.
For example,
if both you and your wife learned something on the same day, and I simply said that you both learned it,
I am not necessarily saying that you each learned it at the exact same moment.

So to answer your question concisely...
Whatever the corrupt "fruit"/guidance was, that Eve shared with Adam; Adam was aware that Eve had previously, privately accepted the same from Satan, first.
Eve would certainly detect the change in Adam's regard and approval of her, as he proceeded to "taste" the "fruit" that Eve had already "eaten" from Satan.  Eve's eyes would "open", as she realized a loss of her husband's esteem for her.
She would then realize that her choice had caused harm to their marriage, and was "bad".
Adam was not deceived. His eyes were opened to shame and guilt ("good and evil") as soon as his misdeed was accomplished. Eve was deceived. She did not see her wrongdoing as such, likely until she saw Adam's own reaction to his sin, as well as his subsequent reaction to Eve, changing his perception of her as pure.

Is this aspect of human nature,
(Keep in mind--a husband's approval is a natural concern for wives -1Cor.7:34).
combined with what the scriptures tell us,
recognizable to you? Does this examination answer what you are asking?
Please let me know.

Remember...Eve was deceived...Adam was not. This would certainly affect the timing of the realization that they were naked, and should feel ashamed.
Yet the Bible is not specific as to the timing of each one's realization. It only states the consequence as occurring to both Adam and Eve.
Whether that consequence occurred at the exact same time for both,
or if there were moments between them...the Bible does not specify in the original language.

I will also mention what someone else wrote to me. They thought that this had to be literal fruit, because of Eve bringing some of the fruit to Adam to also eat. For this reason, I will address this question also.
This fact does not strike down a symbolic interpretation.
If we go according to the Bible's meaning of symbolic trees and fruit, the description of this event applies well.
For example,
If you learn a teaching from a prophet ("fruit"), and you take what you have learned and share it with someone else, this would be symbolically described just as Gen.3:6 teaches that Eve shared the fruit with Adam.

Here is more information:
https://4womaninthewilderness.blogspot.com/2014/06/the-garden-of-eden-new-creation-seven.html


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