AntiChrist

This question was left in "comments" after the Oct.13 post.
I though others could benefit if I posted it:

Hi Pearl,

In the third paragraph of this article you wrote "...and end up worshiping them instead of the Son of God". 

I suspect this was a mistype? (Matt. 6:10). If not please expound.

REPLY:

If by Matt.6:10, you believe that Jesus is not to receive any worship,
but only his Father is, then I understand.

Jesus is God's representative. By this statement,
I highlight men's inclination to follow and obey what they can see (Rev.13:8).
This improper worship was prophesied for our time. The leadership and authority given to
and taken by the "man of lawlessness" [who rules over the Chosen ones (2Thess.2:4;  1Cor.3:16; Eph.2:22)],
replaces the worship and subjection which is due Christ,
as the Head of his wife/body/Congregation. [(Phil.2:10; Rom.14:8,9,11 (John 5:22)]

Regarding those we should worship......
Rev.5:12-13,14; Heb.1:6; Matt.28:9,17; John 9:38; 5:23; Psalm.2:12
NOTE:
The Greek word for worship that is used in all the above verses is proskuneo. Obviously, the NKJV chose to translate this word as worship. The New World Translation (NWT), however, chose to translate this word as obeisance (honor, respect) in all the above verses. What becomes interesting about the NWT, is that whenever the same Greek word, proskuneo, is used in relation to the Father, the translators translated it as worship, even though they rendered it differently in relation to Jesus. (This can be verified by looking in the Watchtower’s own Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures.) Is this a double standard? Is the NWT justified in translating this word 2 different ways; as obeisance to Jesus and as worship to the Father?

Yet, while we give worship to God's installed King, we are given balance in understanding that Jesus is not equal to his Father.
This does not mean that he is not due any worship.
Our balance is clarified, at
1Cor.15:27,28:
"For “God has put all things in subjection under his (Jesus') feet.” But when it says, “all things are put in subjection,” it is plain that he is excepted who put all things in subjection under him. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all."

This does not infer that Jesus does not receive worship....but it does make clear that it is a relative worship in comparison to what is due our Heavenly Father.
Jesus Christ is not the equal of any man. He deserves obeisance from all, accordingly.

This might be illustrated with a family.
Suppose a mother sees to it (and enforces), that all in the household obey the Father.
This does NOT mean that the mother is obeyed INSTEAD of the Father, but rather,
that the mother is obeyed, because of the Father.
If the mother is disobeyed, the Father is also.
If the Father is obeyed, the mother is also.
This is how "worship" is given, both the Father and the Son, because of the Father,
and the position and authority He Himself, has given to His Son 

(Psalm.2:8; Phil.2:9-10; John 14:6; 5:22-23
Regarding Matt.6:10...
God's Kingdom IS given to the administration of Christ and his Bride members (Dan.7:13-14,18,21-22).
that will do God's will on earth,
and "restore all things" (Acts 3:20-21; Eph.1:10; Rev.19:16; 1:5; 5:9-10; Rom.8:29-30)
according to God's purpose.

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