Monday, June 27, 2016

Symbolic " Earth "

A Part Two addition, and a Part Three, has been added at the end of this post.

What follows is a comment from a forum, criticizing this post: (world-earth-home), and my response to that comment.

COMMENT:
"However, according to Pearl, the terms 'world’ and 'entire inhabited earth’ refer
exclusively to ‘God’s people,’ making a joke of scripture which, for example,
says that there was 'an EARTH standing compactly out of water and in the midst
of water by the word of God, and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered
destruction when it was deluged with water; but by the same word the heavens and
the EARTH that are now are stored up for fire and are being reserved to the day of
judgment and of destruction of the ungodly men.’

Are we therefore to believe that ‘God’s people’ were ‘compactly standing out of
water’ in Noah’s day, and ‘suffered destruction when they were deluged with water’
in the global flood?'"

MY RESPONSE:
(I hope you will read each scripture. Therein lies the key to my response.)

You said;
"However, according to Pearl, the terms 'world’ and 'entire inhabited earth’ refer 
exclusively to ‘God’s people,’ making a joke of scripture which, for example, 
says that there was 'an EARTH standing compactly out of water and in the midst 
of water by the word of God, and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered 
destruction when it was deluged with water; but by the same word the heavens and 
the EARTH that are now are stored up for fire and are being reserved to the day of 
judgment and of destruction of the ungodly men.’

Are we therefore to believe that ‘God’s people’ were ‘compactly standing out of 
water’ in Noah’s day, and ‘suffered destruction when they were deluged with water’ 
in the global flood?'"

An examination of "world"/"cosmos", does not mean the planet or it's inhabitants, but rather, a system/age.
Jesus used this word as a reference to the Jewish system, under the old covenant. (John 15:18,25,19; 1:11)

"Entire inhabited earth" refers to a settlement upon land. According to the symbolic book of Revelation it is a realm distinct from the "sea" (Rev.13:1; Isa.57:20)... the "sea" being a "world" over which, "Leviathan" rules (Eze.32:2; Job 7:12; Isa.27:1; Ps.74:14; Rev.12:3; Gen.3:15; ) (1John 5:19).
(pearl-leviathan.blogspot.com)
Satan did not rule over God's now filled "earth" (Gen.1:28; 1Cor.15:45; 2Cor.5:17), but God and Christ are it's over-Kings and Lords (Matt.28:18; Eph.1:22; Ps.8:6; Eph.2:10; John 18:37; Rev.1:5; 5:9-10). Through "Zion" (Heb.12:22-23; Eph.2:6; Luke 10:19; 2Cor.5:20), Christ's rule subdues his enemies, while he rules in the midst of them (Ps.110:1-3; Rev.14:1; 19:11,14; 17:14; 2Cor.10:4-6).
God's first creation became enslaved to corruption (Rom.8:20-21; 1Cor.15:22) due to it's being given over to Satan (Heb.2:14; Rom.5:12,17-19), by Adam and Eve's choice to be guided by the Devil rather than God (Gen.3:6; Matt.12:33; Luke 6:43,45).
(two-trees)

We are told at Rom.15:4, that the accounts found in the Bible, have significance for us (2Tim.3:16).... especially those of us who exist in the time of the end (1Cor.10:11), which includes the Great Tribulation and Armageddon. In fact, accounts of the ancient prophets, will be of great significance, in their ability to impart the interpretation and meaning to God's prophetic mysteries, crystallized and condensed in the book of "Revelation" (Rev.10:7; 2Pet.3:2,6-7).
The original events recorded for us, occurred in the physical realm.... obviously.
But is that the significance for us? Will it occur again, physically. No (Gen.9:11).
Does that mean that such epic events have no meaning for us? No (Luke 17:26-30).
In speaking of the "new" creation; 1Cor.15:45-49 explains that it is a spiritual creation (Rom.8:9; 1Cor.6:17). It is of the spirit realm and of heavenly things, and the pattern of the first, physical creations; provide a pattern of what was to come (1Cor.15:46; Col.2:17; Heb.8:5).
This is also the case with the scripture you cite...
(I will break your comment into two quotes, and respond to each.)

"'an EARTH standing compactly out of water and in the midst 
of water by the word of God, and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered 
destruction when it was deluged with water; but by the same word the heavens and 
the EARTH that are now are stored up for fire and are being reserved to the day of 
judgment and of destruction of the ungodly men.’"

Did God's Nation... His "inhabited earth", "stand compactly out of water" in a spiritual sense?
First let us look more closely at what this is describing.
It is drawing a clear distinction between this earth, and it standing "compact" and firm... separate, from the "water".
We have already seen Isa.57:20 (Jude 1:13,12) as regards the identity of the "sea", from which the "earth" stands as distinctly separate
(John 15:19; 17:14; 2Cor.6:17).
We can observe the fulfillment of that accomplishment, at Rev.10:2,5-6.
What then, of the rest of 2Pet.3:6
"and by those means the WORLD of that time suffered 
destruction when it was deluged with water"?
This has also occurred...
Does God's "earth" "suffer destruction", due to being "completely deluged with water"? (Matt.5:13; Luke 21:24; Rev.11:2) ("water" dilutes "salt" - Num.18:19; 2Chron.13:5)
Yes. Please consider Rev.12:15-16,12; Dan.12:7,11; 8:11; 9:27; Isa.5:4-5; 6:11; Rev.13:7,10; Luke 21:24,35-36)
(earth-swallows-satans-river)
Do you see that the "earth", "swallows a river which Satan has disgorged from his mouth" (John 8:44)?
Do you believe that "river" and that "EARTH" (which "swallows"), to be literal???
  Please compare Gen.7:24 to Rev.9:5 [A Jewish month ("5 months" -Rev.9:5), consists of 30 days each (5 months" = 5X30=150 days -Gen.7:24] (Dan.9:26; 11:10,40; Ps.88:17).
[Means of survival: Luke 6:48; Col.2:6-8]
Why then, is the present "earth" ( = "ungodly men" 2Pet.3:7) (Hosea 13:6; Jer.5:7; 1Cor.6:15; Hosea 4:6; Rev.2:23,20-22; 17:2-3), said to be "stored up for fire" (Rev.20:10,15), if it is compared to a flood of waters?
God's Word can be both... "waters" and "fire", depending upon the context of the parable (John 4:10; Rev.22:1) (Jer.23:29; 5:14; Rev.11:5; 20:9).
Jesus compared the flood of Noah's day and the flood at the time of the end, because they are comparable, when the fulfillment is considered as symbolic.

It is helpful to consider the context of your verses (2Pet.3:3-4) and that the indication it gives, that the "end" being spoken about in the context, goes unrecognized.
That is because it is not indicated by physical signs, but by spiritual ones (1Cor.2:14,12-13,11; Luke 10:21; Matt.13:11-16) (Matt.24:3 LINK). Such is the spiritual fulfillment of prophecy...
    (Rev.1:1 Greek: "presented in signs"/parables) (Mark 4:34; Rev.11:3; Rev.5:7; John 15:15),
...according to the physical patterns recorded for us in the scriptures (Rev.10:7; Dan.12:4,8-10). Obviously, that includes your cited reference to the ancient flood (Luke17:26).

"Are we therefore to believe that ‘God’s people’ were ‘compactly standing out of 
water’ in Noah’s day, and ‘suffered destruction when they were deluged with water’ 
in the global flood?"
No. Not literally in Noah's day.
But within the prophetic significance of that pattern for the "new" creation; the fulfillment about the spiritual "EARTH", is as absolute as the Word of God, as it's meaning is relayed to us, by Christ (Luke17:26).

PART TWO

COMMENT IN RESPONSE TO MY REPLY:
So according to your interpretation of ‘all the inhabited earth’ [Gr. oikoumene] in
Matthew 24:14, Jesus meant to say that, ‘This good news of the kingdom will be
preached among ‘all of God’s people,’ and then the end will come.’ - REALLY???
Since you think that ‘all the inhabited earth’ refers to the anointed, who, then, is doing
the preaching of the good news to them, the pagans of this godless world, or what?

IN RESPONSE
Scriptures provided by another anointed teacher:
(Ezek.3:4,18; Jer.1:18; 25:29-34; Micah 4:11,13; 3:8; Matt.10:23; Matt.22:14; Isa.48:20,21; 49:5; Jer.31:7; Rev.5:9,10; Matt.10:40,41,42; 1Cor.6:2; John 20:23)

MY RESPONSE:
All the "earth" may be God's people at present, but that does not mean that all God's present people, are of "earth".
Who preaches to the "earth"? (Matt.10:23; Rev.1:11)
The armies of heaven, are not the unsealed of the "earth"
(who "swallowed" Satan's river of lies -Rev.12:16).

The "two witnesses" who declare Christ's message to the as yet, unsealed (Rev.7:3)
(Rev.11:3,4,5; Jer.5:14; Matt.10:20; Zech.4:11-12,13-14,10,9; 1Cor.3:16; Rev.3:12; Prov.9:1; Rev.8:6),
are no longer of the "earth", but are of heaven (1Cor.15:48; Rom.8:9; 1Cor.15:50; Phil.3:20; Eph.2:6; Heb.12:22,23; Rev.19:11,14; 17:14).
Please read the scriptures.
I have been commanded to always reply, by means of them (John 16:13; 7:16-18; Rom.3:4; John 5:30).
The marriage feast consists of "the true words of God" (Rev.19:9; Isa.55:8-9), not of men (John 5:43-44; 1:14; 12:49).

(the-good-news-for-who?)
-----------------
PART THREE:
My response continues...

If general mankind has not yet been judged, why then, are they already paying God's sentence for sin?
 (Rom.5:12; John 3:18; Heb.3:19; John 12:31)

Do you have a scripture to indicate that "all the nations" [(literally, "from all nations") -Rev.5:9,10; 7:9,15; 2Chron.23:6]...
    the "sheep and goats"...(Matt.25:32,34; Gal.3:29; Luke 22:29; 12:43,44; Rev.3:21),
...are "the 7+ billion inhabitants of the earth into those "who will enter everlasting life"?
NOTE: The scripture does not read "enter everlasting life". It reads, "inherit the kingdom" [Matt.25:34; 7:21; Luke 12:47,46 (Hosea 6:5; Jer.23:29)].

Addressing your second comment;
Your assertion that anointed themselves are not the ones doing wrong to their own brothers, that is quite a restricting notion
(1John 3:16,17; Matt.25:42,43; 1John 3:16; Col.1:2; James 2:1) (Luke 12:45; Matt.10:21; Rev.18:5; Hosea 9:7; Rev.17:6; 18:24; Matt.23:35,37).

Matt.25:45 speaks of "the least" of Christ's brothers"... not of those who have made themselves "the greatest" (Mark 10:42-44; 1Pet.5:3),
such as the GB "steward" of today (Luke 12:45), who beat their fellows... casting them out to be despised, and their needs, ...utterly ignored! (Matt.25:42-43)
Your premature presumption, limits your capacity to expand your understanding of prophecy.
  If searching for the divine intent of scriptural meaning, it is best to study scripture with an open mind, allowing the Bible to define itself;
rather than starting out with a premise, and filtering scripture through it.

Are you capable yourself, of "reconsidering your take on the meaning of terms like ‘all the earth’ and the ‘world.’ "?
   If the "sea" are the wicked (Isa.57:20; Rev.21:1; 13:1), then who do you say, are the "earth"/"land"?
(2Pet.3:13,10,7; Jude 1:15,12)
[I am assuming that you deduce and agree, that the sea/waters/"deep", is not the "inhabited/settled/occupied, land"
(John 14:23; Isa.26:15; 48:19; 49:19; 62:4) (Luke 8:15; Heb.6:7-9; 2Pet.3:7]

I don't recall seeing your answer yet, to what the "earth" is, that swallows Satan's river;
   (Rev.12:12,15,16; Isa.9:16; Jer.23:15; 9:15; Rev.8:10-11; 13:7,8; Hosea 4:6)
---------------(earth-swallows-satans-river)
presuming that the "earth"
   over which, God is Lord (Acts 17:24),
is not the "sea" (Isa.57:20; Jer.5:22,23; James 1:6)
    over which, "Leviathan" is king (Isa.27:1)
(http://pearl-leviathan.blogspot.com/)

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