A QUESTION:
I do have a question: How do you perceive Romans 11:11 where it says, "But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles." I have the general idea, of course, but would love some more clarification on it.
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MY REPLY:
I cover the context of Rom.11:11 at "Anointed Flock--The Truth".
In addition, I would say this...
Rom.11:11 reads,
"I say then, that they have stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles."
Jesus became the "stone of stumbling" for most Jews (1Pet.2:7,8; Rom.9:32; 1Cor.1:23; Acts4:11). He was not the king/messiah they were expecting, nor what they wanted (Zech.9:9; Matt.21:5,6,7; 11:6).
They understood that the Christ would be the "King of Israel". They knew that he would be the one to govern the people (Matthew 2:6), but they didn't understand that his kingship was not of this world (John 18:36). They expected a political Messiah, one who would save them from their enemies in this world, not one who would "save his people from their sins" (Matthew 1:21). This is why, King Herod was troubled and all Jerusalem with him (Matthew 2:3), for he thought that the Christ would come and take his political throne from him.
Even after having the knowledge that he was indeed the Christ (Matthew 16:16), Peter rebuked him for saying that he would have to suffer (Matt.16:21,22). Even after he actually suffered and died, two of his disciples seemed to have no clue what was happening and Jesus said to them,
"O foolish men, and slow of heart to believe all that the prophets have spoken! Was it not necessary that the Christ should suffer these things and enter into his glory?" (Luke24:25,26)
Jesus had to interpret the scriptures for them, to show them all the things in the scriptures about the Christ (Mark8:31).
So I believe this is what Rom.11:11 is referring to, when it first says that the Jews stumbled.
But did this happen because God wanted them to fall from His grace? ("that they should fall")?
As Paul says..."Certainly not!"
God did not make Christ a humble king destined to die, (whose kingdom did not resemble the glory of Satan's world), just to stumble the fleshly Jews!
This fall was for righteous discipline. When they fell, God turned to the Gentiles for additional heirs. This was in perfect harmony with the covenant with Abraham. For, that Covenant did not only say that Abraham would be father to the Jews...but to "many nations" (Gen.17:4) who could all inherit the kingdom (Gen.13:15; 22:17,18; 26:4; 17:7; 28:14; Rom.4:13,12; 9:8; Gal.3:29).
Through this "fall" and loss to Abraham's fleshly seed, there was the hope that this would move them to jealousy, and the realization that if they were to regain the favor with God that they had lost (through their rejecting God's Son), they would need to repent (Acts2:36,37,38,39). This was the only hope left to the Jews; and this stark realization came to the repentant, by means of salvation to the Gentiles (just as Rom.11:11 concludes).
These truths are also illustrated, when Paul spoke to the Gentiles, at Rom.11:17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24.
Remembering that the Jews were already in the Covenant through Abraham AND MOSES, and eligible for the kingdom through that forgiveness of sins, they were eligible as heirs (should they accept it's Kingdom Messiah, or, repent of their rejecting him).
All they needed to do (while the Abrahamic and Mosaic covenant remained open) was to accept Christ (as the apostles did) or, repent of rejecting him. They would then become heirs of the kingdom, as was promised to Abraham their forefather.
[The Mosaic covenant was also necessary (which was only for the Jews) for the foregiveness of sins. After Christ's sacrifice, animal sacrifices within the Old Temple arrangement, would be replaced. This would open forgiveness to the Gentiles. This transfer to the New Covenant, would put everyone on even ground regarding the promises offered under the Abrahamic Covenant.]
When the Jewish aspect of the Abrahamic covenant (through the Mosaic covenant), was finally concluded and closed (after 7 years), no more favoritism would be shown the Jews (Acts10:34,35; Gal.3:28,29,26; Rom.2:28,29) (original fulfillment of Dan.9:27).
The first 3 1/2 years of favor being shown to only Jews, was during Christ's ministry (Matt.15:24; 10:6) while the Temple arrangement of worship in Jerusalem was still in force. The second period of 3 1/2 years of grace, expired afterward, and since that expiration of favoritism, the New Covenant alone continued to forgive sins for the promises to Abraham's seed. All subsequent heirs would require a personal selection by God, from among all tribes, tongues, peoples, and nations...including the Jews.
I hope I was able to make that clear. If not, please follow up.
Thank you for your good question,
Love in Christ,
Pearl
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I do have a question: How do you perceive Romans 11:11 where it says, "But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles." I have the general idea, of course, but would love some more clarification on it.
--------------------
MY REPLY:
I cover the context of Rom.11:11 at "Anointed Flock--The Truth".
In addition, I would say this...
Rom.11:11 reads,
"I say then, that they have stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles."
Jesus became the "stone of stumbling" for most Jews (1Pet.2:7,8; Rom.9:32; 1Cor.1:23; Acts4:11). He was not the king/messiah they were expecting, nor what they wanted (Zech.9:9; Matt.21:5,6,7; 11:6).
They understood that the Christ would be the "King of Israel". They knew that he would be the one to govern the people (Matthew 2:6), but they didn't understand that his kingship was not of this world (John 18:36). They expected a political Messiah, one who would save them from their enemies in this world, not one who would "save his people from their sins" (Matthew 1:21). This is why, King Herod was troubled and all Jerusalem with him (Matthew 2:3), for he thought that the Christ would come and take his political throne from him.
Even after having the knowledge that he was indeed the Christ (Matthew 16:16), Peter rebuked him for saying that he would have to suffer (Matt.16:21,22). Even after he actually suffered and died, two of his disciples seemed to have no clue what was happening and Jesus said to them,
"O foolish men, and slow of heart to believe all that the prophets have spoken! Was it not necessary that the Christ should suffer these things and enter into his glory?" (Luke24:25,26)
Jesus had to interpret the scriptures for them, to show them all the things in the scriptures about the Christ (Mark8:31).
So I believe this is what Rom.11:11 is referring to, when it first says that the Jews stumbled.
But did this happen because God wanted them to fall from His grace? ("that they should fall")?
As Paul says..."Certainly not!"
God did not make Christ a humble king destined to die, (whose kingdom did not resemble the glory of Satan's world), just to stumble the fleshly Jews!
This fall was for righteous discipline. When they fell, God turned to the Gentiles for additional heirs. This was in perfect harmony with the covenant with Abraham. For, that Covenant did not only say that Abraham would be father to the Jews...but to "many nations" (Gen.17:4) who could all inherit the kingdom (Gen.13:15; 22:17,18; 26:4; 17:7; 28:14; Rom.4:13,12; 9:8; Gal.3:29).
Through this "fall" and loss to Abraham's fleshly seed, there was the hope that this would move them to jealousy, and the realization that if they were to regain the favor with God that they had lost (through their rejecting God's Son), they would need to repent (Acts2:36,37,38,39). This was the only hope left to the Jews; and this stark realization came to the repentant, by means of salvation to the Gentiles (just as Rom.11:11 concludes).
These truths are also illustrated, when Paul spoke to the Gentiles, at Rom.11:17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24.
Remembering that the Jews were already in the Covenant through Abraham AND MOSES, and eligible for the kingdom through that forgiveness of sins, they were eligible as heirs (should they accept it's Kingdom Messiah, or, repent of their rejecting him).
All they needed to do (while the Abrahamic and Mosaic covenant remained open) was to accept Christ (as the apostles did) or, repent of rejecting him. They would then become heirs of the kingdom, as was promised to Abraham their forefather.
[The Mosaic covenant was also necessary (which was only for the Jews) for the foregiveness of sins. After Christ's sacrifice, animal sacrifices within the Old Temple arrangement, would be replaced. This would open forgiveness to the Gentiles. This transfer to the New Covenant, would put everyone on even ground regarding the promises offered under the Abrahamic Covenant.]
When the Jewish aspect of the Abrahamic covenant (through the Mosaic covenant), was finally concluded and closed (after 7 years), no more favoritism would be shown the Jews (Acts10:34,35; Gal.3:28,29,26; Rom.2:28,29) (original fulfillment of Dan.9:27).
The first 3 1/2 years of favor being shown to only Jews, was during Christ's ministry (Matt.15:24; 10:6) while the Temple arrangement of worship in Jerusalem was still in force. The second period of 3 1/2 years of grace, expired afterward, and since that expiration of favoritism, the New Covenant alone continued to forgive sins for the promises to Abraham's seed. All subsequent heirs would require a personal selection by God, from among all tribes, tongues, peoples, and nations...including the Jews.
I hope I was able to make that clear. If not, please follow up.
Thank you for your good question,
Love in Christ,
Pearl
LINK TO MAIN HOME-PAGE
LINK TO DIRECTORY OF ARTICLES
LINK TO FORUM
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