Wednesday, October 30, 2013

The Original Sin


Good day sister D
I just read something interesting about why Satan succeeded in deceiving Eve. 

1. In your view why did Satan succeed in deceiving Eve and not Adam (if He did try to deceive him)

2. What does it mean to know "good and evil"?

3. Why didn't they realize that they were naked before they ate the fruit?

Lastly can you please provide me with the link about what the trees in Genesis represent (you wrote that a couple of months ago)

Many thanks


Dear Modise,

Eph.5:8-12 reads:
"For you were once darkness, but now you are light in the Lord. Live as children of light (for the fruit of the light consists in all goodness, righteousness and truth) and find out what pleases the Lord. Have nothing to do with the fruitless deeds of darkness, but rather expose them. 12 It is shameful even to mention what the disobedient do in secret."

The reason I raise this scripture, is because it relates to the details of Adam and Eve's sin.
How so?

"The fruit of light consists in all goodness, righteousness and truth" (Eph.5:9).
Keep in mind that this is not speaking of literal fruit, but of teaching/words (Matt.12:33,34,35,36,37; 7:20; Heb.13:15)
The acceptable "fruit of light" is the "truth", and is only "goodness". It consists in "all righteousness", never guiding one into wrong thoughts or behavior. 

Such "light" results in life, eternally (John1:1,4; 8:12; 12:46; Prov.11:30; 10:11; 3:13,18). 
The source of this "fruit of light", is the "Tree of Life", the "Word". 
All it's wise "fruit", is "goodness".

What about the other "tree"? The "tree of knowledge" was of both good AND BAD (Gen.3:22). 
In knowing both, a comparison can be made, and a knowledge of how these differ from each other, is gained. When one acts upon evil information, innocence is gone.

The Bible reveals that Satan's mouth, also bears "fruit"/teachings (Rev.16:13; 12:15; Col.2:8; 2Cor.11:3; 1Tim.6:20,21; Gen.3:4,5; Rev.2:24; James3:15). Just as Jesus is "the way", and his teachings are the road to life; Satan's deceptions are the road which leads to destruction (2Thess.2:9,10; Matt.7:13; Rev.12:9). All of Satan's teachings/"fruit" are lies, darkness, error/sin, and they lead to death (John8:44; Heb.2:14; James1:15). To take in knowledge of such evil teachings, is to be deceived. Eve herself obtained this falsely-called knowledge (Gen.3:13; 1Tim.6:20; 2Cor.11:14) which resulted in her death (Rom.5:12; Gen.2:17).

With that introduction accomplished, I will try to answer each of your questions.

1. My view is worthless, but I will forward for your consideration some scriptural observations.
Why was Eve deceived, but not Adam (Gen.3:13; 1Tim.2:14; 2Cor.11:3)?  The only reasonable way to discover this, is to examine what differences existed between Adam and Eve. Only one of those differences can account for a difference in response to Satan's beguile. 

Adam was directly warned by God (Gen.2:16,17). Adam alone named all the creatures that God brought before him (Gen.2:19). To "name" something, reflects your authority to determine it's use and purpose 
(Rev.7:3; 14:1; 2:17; Isa.62:2; Rev.3:12; Isa.1:26; 56:5). Adam's kingdom over the planet and all life on it, was bestowed before Eve appeared (Gen.1:26,28). Eve was for Adam, not Adam for Eve (Gen.2:18,22; 1Cor.11:7,8,9). This "Law" is consistent, even within the spiritual symbolism of "women" (Gal.4:24; 2Cor.11:2; Rev.22:17; Eph.5:23,24).

 We are told that previous to the act of sin, there is temptation (James1:14,15,16; Gen.4:6,7). What would have tempted Eve, and not so much Adam? The things Satan offered Eve hold a clue for us.

 Satan first said, "Did God really say, ‘You must not eat from any tree in the garden'?"
  "Did God really say"
  Here Satan highlighted, that Eve likely received this warning second-hand. Satan introduced the idea, that perhaps she should not believe all she hears from her husband...Perhaps he is just trying to be overly controlling, exerting a unfounded superiority, dominance, and arrogance. 
How did Eve feel about being a lesser one? Satan would bring this issue out on the table for exploitation. After all, why didn't God tell her directly also? Why was she "out of the loop"? Would she feel "passed over", perhaps humiliated?

  Next Satan promotes the idea, that indeed she has been made a fool by Adam...
"You will not certainly die,” the serpent said to the woman." (Gen.3:4).
Now the question was raised in Eve's mind....
Why would God and Adam lie to Eve about the Tree of Knowledge"? 

Perhaps to foment increasing jealousy of the superiority of both God and Adam, Satan lies about the purported motive for keeping Eve in ignorance...
“For God knows that when you eat from it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil.”

Adam did not have the same motive to be jealous. God was generous to Adam, giving him everything. This included a warning to avoid Satan and his lies. God could read Satan's motives, even before Satan sinned.
Eve enjoyed all the same blessings but one...To be first and primary.
According to Satan...If Eve bucked her imposed restriction...she could take first place in something ahead of Adam....
"knowing good and evil" (Gen.3:6).

1Tim.2:14 tells us that the man was not deceived, but Eve was, and she sinned first. According to scripture, this occurred because she acted upon a wrong desire (James1:14,15), which likely resulted from her occupying a different role than Adam (1Cor.11:7,8,9). These roles are not exchangeable (Deut.22:5). Although Eve's divine role was perfect for her innate needs and happiness; I suspect that Satan was able to exploit this difference.

Another worthy consideration is a look at what the "fruit"/teaching/lie of Satan actually was. What wicked guidance was it, and what wicked deed did it direct?
I believe this brings us to your second and third questions...
"What does it mean to know 'good and evil'?"
"Why didn't they realize that they were naked before they ate the fruit?"

2.&3. While innocent, we do not "know" shame and guilt (Titus1:15). To feel shame and guilt, is to "know evil" and it's contrast with "good". It occurs after sin.

This is consistent with your third question. Adam and Eve felt no shame in their nakedness, before their sinning. Although sexually active, they felt guiltless (Gen.2:24,25).
  Interestingly, after their sin (into which they were guided by Satan's counsel), they each felt both shame and guilt at their deviance from God's guidance (Gen.3:7,10,11).
  Whatever sin Satan's lie drove Eve to commit, in defiance of a natural, innocent, and pure sexuality;
she shared it with Adam. Both were tempted into being lead by Satan's guidance, rather than remain innocent of such "evil" corruption. That sin is associated with an awareness of being ashamed of their sexuality (Gen.2:24,25; 3:7). 
  God gave Eve to Adam as a companion, helper, and mate. This was to be a romantic and sexual relationship. This was clear to Adam, and he knew it was clear to God. Yet before sin, this purpose carried with it, no compromise of integrity (Gen.2:22,23,24,25), nor feelings of guilt or shame.

I personally feel that my personal deduction about the nature of the first sin, gains weight, when we see Adam's response...
 "He answered, “I heard you in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked; so I hid.” 
And God said, “Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten from the tree that I commanded you not to eat from?” The man said, “The woman you put here with me —she gave me some fruit from the tree, and I ate it." (Gen.3:10,11,12).
Adam pointed back to God's gift of a wife, and that he merely indulged in what God gave him...
trying to diminish the fact that his actions were directed by the teachings/"fruit", of the forbidden tree.

The Bible does not offer precise details of why Adam and Eve became ashamed of their sexuality following guidance by Satan. I believe this brings us back to Eph.5:12...
"It is shameful even to mention what the disobedient do in secret."
God's clean Word will leave it to what is necessary.
We are not ignorant of what demons can desire (Gen.6:1,2,4; Jude1:6,7; Rom.1:25,26; 2Pet.2:4,7,10).

Remember the warning the Chosen Ones are given, at 2Cor.11:2,3?
"For I am jealous for you with a godly jealousy; for I betrothed you to one husband, so that to Christ I might present you as a pure virgin. But I am afraid that, as the serpent seduced Eve by his craftiness, your minds will be led astray from the simplicity and purity of devotion to Christ."

Clearly, Paul's concern was to preserve the virginity, chastity and purity of Christ's collective bride.
He warns that it's loss is associated with the same seduction of Eve by Satan.
Of course we know that the virginity Paul is speaking of here, is symbolic (Rev.14:4,5).
Yet it would not be a symbolic loss of sexual cleanness, that would cause Adam and Eve to sew fig leaves together to cover their literal sexual parts.

I will assume you comprehend what my own view is, regarding the original sin, so that I don't have to "mention it" further (Eph.5:12).

Lastly, here is the link you requested. It will provide more scriptures regarding the Bible's symbolic use of "trees" and their "fruit", 
including other uses of the term, "tree of life". Those scriptures aid us in obtaining a deeper and more mature knowledge of Genesis, chapters 1-3.

Thank you for your fine question.
If the answer remains wanting, please follow up.
Love in Christ,





Thank you for the answer you gave, just wanted to draw your attention to Gen.3:6,7:
"She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. 7 Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves".

Why did Eve's eyes not open open up immediately after she ate the fruit but only after Adam ate?

My Reply:

I am going to add in parenthesis, the Hebrew transliteration of certain parts of these verses.
Gen.3:6,7 reads:
"When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some (she is taking from him) and ate it (and she is giving). She also (gave?) some (and she also IS GIVING) to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. 7 Then the eyes of both of them were opened (and·they-are-being-unclosed eyes-of two-of·them), and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves."

The first point is that the Hebrew describes the fruit as coming from Satan, not from the literal tree.
The second point, is that the Hebrew describes Eve as giving something away WHILE she is accepting, rather than how it is translated, "and ate it".
The third point, is that the Hebrew describes the offering of fruit to Adam at the same time that she herself is eating it. It is not originally written in the past tense as commonly translated.

  Yet even if the opening of Eve's eyes did take longer than Adam, this need not be perplexing.
This would indicate that she did not perceive the wrong as quickly as Adam.
This is in perfect harmony with the fact that Eve was deceived, and Adam was not (1Tim.2:14).

The opening of Eve's eyes many not have occurred, until Adam felt his own guilt and shame. It makes sense that he might feel it first, since he knew this was wrong (Eve was deceived). Seeing Adam's shame could certainly remove the ignorance and innocence from Eve's eyes.

Certainly Eve would lose esteem in Adam's regard, when Adam realized the unclean state of his wife before she herself did. She may not have perceived her unclean state, until she saw it reflected in her husband's own disapproving eyes. no time was Adam deceived about what Eve had chosen. Eve was deceived.
Even Satan said their eyes are bound to be opened (literally, "in the day of") (Gen.3:5). This indicates an inescapable consequence, but it does not indicate that this had to take place instantly, nor at the same time with Adam and Eve as individuals.
When it states that both their eyes were opened, it does not specify the timing of either, only that this realization took place with both of them.
For example,
if both you and your wife learned something on the same day, and I simply said that you both learned it,
I am not necessarily saying that you each learned it at the exact same moment.

So to answer your question concisely...
Whatever the corrupt "fruit"/guidance was, that Eve shared with Adam; Adam was aware that Eve had previously, privately accepted the same from Satan, first.
Eve would certainly detect the change in Adam's regard and approval of her, as he proceeded to "taste" the "fruit" that Eve had already "eaten" from Satan.  Eve's eyes would "open", as she realized a loss of her husband's esteem for her.
She would then realize that her choice had caused harm to their marriage, and was "bad".
Adam was not deceived. His eyes were opened to shame and guilt ("good and evil") as soon as his misdeed was accomplished. Eve was deceived. She did not see her wrongdoing as such, likely until she saw Adam's own reaction to his sin, as well as his subsequent reaction to Eve, changing his perception of her as pure.

Is this aspect of human nature,
(Keep in mind--a husband's approval is a natural concern for wives -1Cor.7:34).
combined with what the scriptures tell us,
recognizable to you? Does this examination answer what you are asking?
Please let me know.

Remember...Eve was deceived...Adam was not. This would certainly affect the timing of the realization that they were naked, and should feel ashamed.
Yet the Bible is not specific as to the timing of each one's realization. It only states the consequence as occurring to both Adam and Eve.
Whether that consequence occurred at the exact same time for both,
or if there were moments between them...the Bible does not specify in the original language.

I will also mention what someone else wrote to me. They thought that this had to be literal fruit, because of Eve bringing some of the fruit to Adam to also eat. For this reason, I will address this question also.
This fact does not strike down a symbolic interpretation.
If we go according to the Bible's meaning of symbolic trees and fruit, the description of this event applies well.
For example,
If you learn a teaching from a prophet ("fruit"), and you take what you have learned and share it with someone else, this would be symbolically described just as Gen.3:6 teaches that Eve shared the fruit with Adam.

Here is more information:



  1. Could it be a possibility that eves eyes was not opened until Adam ate because they are one?. As someone deceived, should they have known better?

    1. Adam's eyes were never closed, so no, it is not possible that Eve's eyes opened when Adam's did.
      Adam was never deceived (1Tim.2:14 A). His eyes were open the whole time.
      Not sure what you mean by, "As someone deceived, should they have known better?"
      In Eve being deceived (1Tim.2:14 B; Gen.3:13; 2Cor.11:3 A), she did not fully appreciate why God's command had restricted her. Does this mean she didn't "know better"? No.
      Appreciation was not necessary in order to obey. We are capable of obeying God's commands and restrictions, even when we do not understand why we should (Prov.3:5; 28:26).
      In this regard, Eve did know better. God's restriction was plain and understood by her (Gen.3:2,3).
      She was fully equipped by God, and capable of obedience. But that was not her desire (James1:14,15,16; Gen.3:6).

      If I did not understand what you meant by saying that someone deceived should know better,
      please clarify.


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