Thursday, October 31, 2013

Addition to "The Original Sin"

I received a follow-up question to "The Original Sin", so I have added a part "B" addition, as follows:

Question:

Thank you for the answer you gave, just wanted to draw your attention to Gen.3:6,7:
"She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. 7 Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves".

Why did Eve's eyes not open open up immediately after she ate the fruit but only after Adam ate?
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My Reply:

I am going to add in parenthesis, the Hebrew transliteration of certain parts of these verses.
Gen.3:6,7 reads:
"When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some (she is taking from him) and ate it (and she is giving). She also (gave?) some (and she also IS GIVING) to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it. 7 Then the eyes of both of them were opened (and·they-are-being-unclosed eyes-of two-of·them), and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves."

The first point is that the Hebrew describes the fruit as coming from Satan, not from the literal tree.
The second point, is that the Hebrew describes Eve as giving something away WHILE she is accepting, rather than how it is translated, "and ate it".
The third point, is that the Hebrew describes the offering of fruit to Adam at the same time that she herself is eating it. It is not originally written in the past tense as commonly translated.

  Yet even if the opening of Eve's eyes did take longer than Adam, this need not be perplexing.
This would indicate that she did not perceive the wrong as quickly as Adam.
This is in perfect harmony with the fact that Eve was deceived, and Adam was not (1Tim.2:14).

The opening of Eve's eyes many not have occurred, until Adam felt his own guilt and shame. It makes sense that he might feel it first, since he knew this was wrong (Eve was deceived). Seeing Adam's shame could certainly remove the ignorance and innocence from Eve's eyes.

Certainly Eve would lose esteem in Adam's regard, when Adam realized the unclean state of his wife before she herself did. She may not have perceived her unclean state, until she saw it reflected in her husband's own disapproving eyes. Remember...at no time was Adam deceived about what Eve had chosen. Eve was deceived.
Even Satan said their eyes are bound to be opened (literally, "in the day of") (Gen.3:5). This indicates an inescapable consequence, but it does not indicate that this had to take place instantly, nor at the same time with Adam and Eve as individuals.
When it states that both their eyes were opened, it does not specify the timing of either, only that this realization took place with both of them.
For example,
if both you and your wife learned something on the same day, and I simply said that you both learned it,
I am not necessarily saying that you each learned it at the exact same moment.

So to answer your question concisely...
Adam was not deceived. His eyes were opened to shame and guilt ("good and evil") as soon as his misdeed was accomplished. Eve was deceived. She did not see her wrongdoing as such, likely until she saw Adam's own reaction to his sin, as well as his subsequent reaction to Eve, changing his perception of her as pure. Eve would certainly detect this change in Adam's regard and approval of her (-which wives are naturally concerned about -1Cor.7:34) so that she realized her choice had caused harm.
Is this aspect of human nature, combined with what the scriptures tell us,
recognizable to you? Does this examination answer what you are asking?
Please let me know.
Remember...Eve was deceived...Adam was not. This would certainly affect the timing of the realization that they were naked, and should feel ashamed.
Yet the Bible is not specific as to the timing of each one's realization. It only states the consequence as occurring to both Adam and Eve.
Whether that consequence occurred at the exact same time for both,
or if there were moments between them...the Bible does not specify.

I will also mention what someone else wrote to me. They thought that this had to be literal fruit, because of Eve bringing some of the fruit to Adam to also eat. For this reason, I will address this question also.
This fact does not strike down a symbolic interpretation.
If we go according to the Bible's meaning of symbolic trees and fruit, the description of this event applies well.
For example,
If you learn a teaching ("fruit") from a prophet ("tree"), and you take what you have learned and share it with someone else, this would be symbolically described just as Gen.3:6 teaches that Eve shared the fruit with Adam.

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